Legal Reasoning MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Legal Reasoning - Download Free PDF
Last updated on May 30, 2025
Latest Legal Reasoning MCQ Objective Questions
Legal Reasoning Question 1:
Comprehension:
Artificial Intelligence is rapidly evolving into a powerful force in human communication, now capable of outperforming people in structured debates. A recent study from the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology in Lausanne reveals that large language models (LLMs) like ChatGPT can construct persuasive, rational arguments—and even tailor them based on an opponent’s personal information to increase their effectiveness. In a world already grappling with misinformation, conspiracy theories, and political polarisation, this raises grave concerns about how such tools might be weaponised. The ability to manipulate public opinion with customised, data-driven arguments could lead to a dangerous escalation of “alternative facts” and digitally amplified falsehoods.
However, the true threat lies not within the AI itself, but in the intentions of the humans who control it. As computational linguist Emily M. Bender famously described, AI is a “stochastic parrot”—a machine that generates convincing language without understanding its meaning. Debate, at its core, is a human pursuit, shaped by emotion, ideology, and power. AI remains a tool, not a sentient participant. Therefore, if it causes harm, the responsibility lies squarely with its users. The unsettling reality is not that AI can mislead people, but that flawed, ambitious humans can wield it to serve destructive ends.
What is the central ethical conclusion drawn in the article regarding the misuse of AI in communication?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 1 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 3
Key Points It emphasizes that AI, as per linguist Emily M. Bender’s concept of a “stochastic parrot,” is not a sentient being but a machine that generates language without true understanding. Therefore, ethical accountability rests on human users, not the AI. The real danger arises when humans misuse AI’s persuasive capabilities for harmful or manipulative purposes, rather than from the AI acting autonomously.
Legal Reasoning Question 2:
Comprehension:
In a landmark decision, the Supreme Court of India recently invalidated two executive notifications issued by the Union Ministry of Environment that allowed industries to operate or expand without obtaining prior environmental clearance. These notifications, introduced in 2017 and 2021 respectively, permitted industries to apply for post-facto clearances by paying hefty fines, effectively bypassing the core principle of “prior approval” enshrined in the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification of 2006. Critics argued that this undermined the legislative intent and bypassed the parliamentary process, as these notifications were issued through executive orders without amending the parent law — the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
The central government justified its actions by citing economic needs and the risk of disruption to functioning industries. It referred to earlier attempts under the UPA government to introduce regularisation procedures and pointed to similar cases where courts opted for a balanced approach. However, the Supreme Court reaffirmed the importance of prior clearance and held that the regularisation route through executive orders was illegal. It allowed those industries that had already availed of the 2017 and 2021 processes to remain unaffected, highlighting the need for stronger enforcement by regional authorities. The judgment aims to ensure that economic development does not come at the cost of environmental accountability and rule of law.
According to the Supreme Court’s judgment, which principle of the EIA Notification, 2006 was violated by the post-facto clearance notifications?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 2 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option C
Key Points
The Supreme Court held that issuing such notifications without amending the parent statute (the Environment Protection Act, 1986) was an executive overreach. It stressed that the legal framework requires prior environmental clearance and that post-facto approval via executive orders is impermissible under the law.
Legal Reasoning Question 3:
Comprehension:
The International Monetary Fund’s report that pointed to the likelihood of the economic gains of Artificial Intelligence (AI) applications outweighing the environmental costs of the increased energy demand that AI data centres will require is reassuring. It underscores that this transformational technology is not fundamentally at odds with the global imperative to pursue sustainable growth strategies across the board. Countries that are better prepared with renewable energy generation are bound to see a lower social and environmental cost to pursuing their AI ambitions. India’s AI infrastructure — at least the part of it that the government is indirectly funding through the IndiaAI Mission — does not rise to the level of weighing at a macro level on the nation’s energy mix. Still, the need for pursuing renewables specifically for AI is necessary to follow. This is already in a sense the government’s approach to the issue, outlined at the AI Action Summit in Paris earlier this year. While AI is not the sole industry where a push for renewable energy and sustainable practices is important, the sector nevertheless offers itself up for two main reasons. The first is the sheer volume of electricity that it is set to consume. The IMF’s report indicates that in the United States — the single largest home for AI computing capacity globally — “AI expansion alone could increase electricity prices by up to 9 percent, adding to price pressures coming from many other sources”. As such, renewable energy could play a major role in cushioning against a multifold rise in emissions that conventional energy sources would likely entail. The second is that data centres lend themselves uniquely to captive renewable infrastructure. Some Indian firms have already made moves to purchase renewable energy, and the hundreds of acres that data centres occupy are ripe for complementing equipment with solar cells. Nuclear energy may also turn out to be a welcome contribution: small modular reactors at emerging data centre clusters, in conjunction with other renewable sources, would avert a sizeable quantity of emissions.
Electricity use is not the only environmental footprint that the AI age will leave behind — the technology requires large-scale mining of minerals and water use, and produces effluents in the manufacturing of the electronics supply chain. As electronics manufacturing is another space that India aspires to grow in, these opportunities must be pursued in this area too. India’s net zero target for 2070 will demand a scaling down of conventional sources of emissions, and managing the rise of industries that are poised to expand their share of global energy consumption.
The development of renewable infrastructure alongside AI deployment may attract regulation under which body established by law in India?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 3 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Key Points
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory body established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and later under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- CPCB is responsible for monitoring and controlling pollution in India, including pollution from industrial and infrastructure projects.
- When developing renewable energy infrastructure (like solar or wind power plants) alongside AI deployment (which may involve data centers or other facilities), environmental regulations apply to control air, water, and land pollution.
- CPCB ensures that projects comply with environmental standards and permits to prevent harmful environmental impacts.
- It plays a key role in maintaining the balance between development and environmental protection.
Additional Information
- Option 1. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI): Regulates telecommunications and broadcasting services.
- Option 3. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): Focuses on conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.
- Option 4. Data Protection Board of India: Concerned with data privacy and protection, not environmental regulation.
Legal Reasoning Question 4:
Comprehension:
The International Monetary Fund’s report that pointed to the likelihood of the economic gains of Artificial Intelligence (AI) applications outweighing the environmental costs of the increased energy demand that AI data centres will require is reassuring. It underscores that this transformational technology is not fundamentally at odds with the global imperative to pursue sustainable growth strategies across the board. Countries that are better prepared with renewable energy generation are bound to see a lower social and environmental cost to pursuing their AI ambitions. India’s AI infrastructure — at least the part of it that the government is indirectly funding through the IndiaAI Mission — does not rise to the level of weighing at a macro level on the nation’s energy mix. Still, the need for pursuing renewables specifically for AI is necessary to follow. This is already in a sense the government’s approach to the issue, outlined at the AI Action Summit in Paris earlier this year. While AI is not the sole industry where a push for renewable energy and sustainable practices is important, the sector nevertheless offers itself up for two main reasons. The first is the sheer volume of electricity that it is set to consume. The IMF’s report indicates that in the United States — the single largest home for AI computing capacity globally — “AI expansion alone could increase electricity prices by up to 9 percent, adding to price pressures coming from many other sources”. As such, renewable energy could play a major role in cushioning against a multifold rise in emissions that conventional energy sources would likely entail. The second is that data centres lend themselves uniquely to captive renewable infrastructure. Some Indian firms have already made moves to purchase renewable energy, and the hundreds of acres that data centres occupy are ripe for complementing equipment with solar cells. Nuclear energy may also turn out to be a welcome contribution: small modular reactors at emerging data centre clusters, in conjunction with other renewable sources, would avert a sizeable quantity of emissions.
Electricity use is not the only environmental footprint that the AI age will leave behind — the technology requires large-scale mining of minerals and water use, and produces effluents in the manufacturing of the electronics supply chain. As electronics manufacturing is another space that India aspires to grow in, these opportunities must be pursued in this area too. India’s net zero target for 2070 will demand a scaling down of conventional sources of emissions, and managing the rise of industries that are poised to expand their share of global energy consumption.
The ‘Polluter Pays’ principle, often applied in cases involving high energy-consuming technologies, was judicially recognized in which of the following landmark Indian cases?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 4 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
Key Points
- M.C. Mehta v. Union of India is a landmark environmental case where the Supreme Court of India recognized the ‘Polluter Pays’ principle.
- This principle holds that the polluter must bear the cost of pollution control and environmental damage caused by their activities.
- It aims to make industries accountable for the environmental harm they cause, including those involving high energy consumption and pollution.
- The case helped strengthen environmental jurisprudence in India by linking environmental protection with liability and compensation.
- It is an important step towards sustainable development and environmental justice.
Additional Information
- Option 1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India: Focuses on personal liberty and due process under Article 21.
- Option 3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala: Deals with the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution.
- Option 4. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain: Concerned with election law and constitutional validity of the Emergency.
Legal Reasoning Question 5:
Comprehension:
The International Monetary Fund’s report that pointed to the likelihood of the economic gains of Artificial Intelligence (AI) applications outweighing the environmental costs of the increased energy demand that AI data centres will require is reassuring. It underscores that this transformational technology is not fundamentally at odds with the global imperative to pursue sustainable growth strategies across the board. Countries that are better prepared with renewable energy generation are bound to see a lower social and environmental cost to pursuing their AI ambitions. India’s AI infrastructure — at least the part of it that the government is indirectly funding through the IndiaAI Mission — does not rise to the level of weighing at a macro level on the nation’s energy mix. Still, the need for pursuing renewables specifically for AI is necessary to follow. This is already in a sense the government’s approach to the issue, outlined at the AI Action Summit in Paris earlier this year. While AI is not the sole industry where a push for renewable energy and sustainable practices is important, the sector nevertheless offers itself up for two main reasons. The first is the sheer volume of electricity that it is set to consume. The IMF’s report indicates that in the United States — the single largest home for AI computing capacity globally — “AI expansion alone could increase electricity prices by up to 9 percent, adding to price pressures coming from many other sources”. As such, renewable energy could play a major role in cushioning against a multifold rise in emissions that conventional energy sources would likely entail. The second is that data centres lend themselves uniquely to captive renewable infrastructure. Some Indian firms have already made moves to purchase renewable energy, and the hundreds of acres that data centres occupy are ripe for complementing equipment with solar cells. Nuclear energy may also turn out to be a welcome contribution: small modular reactors at emerging data centre clusters, in conjunction with other renewable sources, would avert a sizeable quantity of emissions.
Electricity use is not the only environmental footprint that the AI age will leave behind — the technology requires large-scale mining of minerals and water use, and produces effluents in the manufacturing of the electronics supply chain. As electronics manufacturing is another space that India aspires to grow in, these opportunities must be pursued in this area too. India’s net zero target for 2070 will demand a scaling down of conventional sources of emissions, and managing the rise of industries that are poised to expand their share of global energy consumption.
The development of AI infrastructure involving land acquisition for data centres must comply with which Indian legislation?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 5 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 2
Key Points
- This Act is the main law governing land acquisition in India for public and private projects.
- It ensures fair compensation to landowners whose land is acquired by the government or private entities for development purposes, like building data centres.
- The Act mandates transparency in the acquisition process to protect landowners’ rights.
- It includes provisions for rehabilitation and resettlement of affected people, ensuring they are properly supported.
- The law aims to balance the need for development with the rights of affected communities.
Additional Information
- Option 1. Land Acquisition Act, 1894: An older law replaced largely by the 2013 Act with more protections.
- Option 3. Transfer of Property Act, 1882: Governs sale and transfer of property but not land acquisition by the government.
- Option 4. Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016: Regulates real estate sector and protects buyers but does not govern land acquisition.
Top Legal Reasoning MCQ Objective Questions
Comprehension:
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women. The Act was declared valid after the Bench read it down in such a way as not to foreclose the secular remedy for Muslim women. Several High Court judgments took different views on whether Muslim women should avail of Section 3 of the 1986 Act or Section 125 of CrPC. The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point. Justice Nagarathna, in her concurring opinion, looks at the social purpose behind the provision for maintenance in the CrPC, namely that it aims to prevent vagrancy among women by compelling the husband to support his wife. The 1986 Act codified the right available to a divorced Muslim woman in personal law. This right is in addition to, and not at the cost of, the rights available in existing law. The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
How does Justice Masih view the relationship between the 1986 Act and existing law regarding the rights of Muslim women seeking maintenance?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Option 3.
Key Points
- Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point.
Comprehension:
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women. The Act was declared valid after the Bench read it down in such a way as not to foreclose the secular remedy for Muslim women. Several High Court judgments took different views on whether Muslim women should avail of Section 3 of the 1986 Act or Section 125 of CrPC. The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point. Justice Nagarathna, in her concurring opinion, looks at the social purpose behind the provision for maintenance in the CrPC, namely that it aims to prevent vagrancy among women by compelling the husband to support his wife. The 1986 Act codified the right available to a divorced Muslim woman in personal law. This right is in addition to, and not at the cost of, the rights available in existing law. The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was applicable to all irrespective of their religion?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Option 1.
Key Points Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
- The Act was enacted to protect the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by, or have obtained divorce from, their husbands.
- It provides for matters connected with or incidental to the protection of these rights.
- This Act was a response to the Mohd. Ahmad Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum, 1985. In which the SC delivered held that section 125 of the CrPC is a secular provision applicable to all, irrespective of religion.
Comprehension:
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women. The Act was declared valid after the Bench read it down in such a way as not to foreclose the secular remedy for Muslim women. Several High Court judgments took different views on whether Muslim women should avail of Section 3 of the 1986 Act or Section 125 of CrPC. The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point. Justice Nagarathna, in her concurring opinion, looks at the social purpose behind the provision for maintenance in the CrPC, namely that it aims to prevent vagrancy among women by compelling the husband to support his wife. The 1986 Act codified the right available to a divorced Muslim woman in personal law. This right is in addition to, and not at the cost of, the rights available in existing law. The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
The verdict in question is considered a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Option 2.
Key Points
- The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
Comprehension:
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women. The Act was declared valid after the Bench read it down in such a way as not to foreclose the secular remedy for Muslim women. Several High Court judgments took different views on whether Muslim women should avail of Section 3 of the 1986 Act or Section 125 of CrPC. The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point. Justice Nagarathna, in her concurring opinion, looks at the social purpose behind the provision for maintenance in the CrPC, namely that it aims to prevent vagrancy among women by compelling the husband to support his wife. The 1986 Act codified the right available to a divorced Muslim woman in personal law. This right is in addition to, and not at the cost of, the rights available in existing law. The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
Who were the judges involved in the recent Supreme Court verdict that clarified the rights of divorced Muslim women?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Option 2.
Key Points
- The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of Mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Comprehension:
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women. The Act was declared valid after the Bench read it down in such a way as not to foreclose the secular remedy for Muslim women. Several High Court judgments took different views on whether Muslim women should avail of Section 3 of the 1986 Act or Section 125 of CrPC. The latest verdict by a Bench of Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Augustine George Masih settles this question by holding that the codification of a Muslim woman’s rights in the 1986 Act including the right to maintenance during the Iddat period, provision for a dignified life until she remarries, and return of mehr and dowry was only in addition to and not in derogation of her right to seek maintenance like a woman of any other religion.
Justice Masih, in his main opinion, concludes that both the personal law provision and the secular remedy for seeking maintenance ought to exist in parallel in their distinct domains. While the CrPC may be invoked by a woman if she was unable to maintain herself, the 1986 Act makes it a Muslim husband’s obligation to provide for his divorced wife and her children up to a certain point. Justice Nagarathna, in her concurring opinion, looks at the social purpose behind the provision for maintenance in the CrPC, namely that it aims to prevent vagrancy among women by compelling the husband to support his wife. The 1986 Act codified the right available to a divorced Muslim woman in personal law. This right is in addition to, and not at the cost of, the rights available in existing law. The verdict is a great example of the Court using harmonious interpretation to expand the scope of rights as well as to secularise access to remedies. In the process, the Court has also neutralised the perception that the right of Muslim women seeking maintenance under secular provisions stood extinguished since 1986.
What significant law was enacted in 1986 concerning the rights of divorced Muslim women in India?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Option 2.
Key Points
- The enactment of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, was a watershed moment that is seen as having undermined the country’s secular ethos by seeking to nullify a Court judgment in the Shah Bano case (1985), which allowed a divorced Muslim woman to apply for maintenance from a magistrate under Section 125 of the CrPC.
- Subsequently, the 1986 law was upheld by a Constitution Bench in 2001 after coming close to declaring its provisions unconstitutional for discriminating against Muslim women.
Legal Reasoning Question 11:
Comprehension:
President Droupadi Murmu has approved the creation of the 23rd Law Commission of India. This new commission will be active from September 1, 2024, to August 31, 2027. The decision comes as the 22nd Law Commission’s term ends, and there were delays in pending reports due to the lack of a chairperson.
The 23rd Law Commission will consist of the following members: A full-time leader who will head the commission. Four full-time members, including a Member-Secretary. Two members who are Secretaries of the Legal and Legislative Departments. Part-Time Members up to five.
The main purpose of the Law Commission is to review the Indian legal system and suggest improvements. They focus on making laws more effective and relevant to current needs.
The 22nd Law Commission faced difficulties after its Chairman, Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, resigned. This led to delays in addressing important topics like the Uniform Civil Code and the idea of holding elections simultaneously across the country.
The 23rd Law Commission has several key objectives:
Review and Repeal of Obsolete Laws: Identifying old laws that are no longer needed and suggesting their removal. They will also develop a process to review laws regularly.
Law and Poverty: Evaluating how laws affect economically disadvantaged people and suggesting changes to benefit them.
Judicial Administration: Finding ways to reduce court delays and make the legal process more efficient.
Directive Principles and Constitutional Objectives: Ensuring that current laws align with the Directive Principles of State Policy, which guide the government’s policies.
Gender Equality: Proposing changes to laws to promote equality between men and women.
Revision of Central Acts: Simplifying important Central Acts (laws passed by the Parliament) to make them easier to understand and apply.
Government References: Handling specific legal issues referred to them by the government.
International Research Assistance: Providing legal research support to other countries.
Globalization Impact: Assessing how globalization affects key social issues, such as food security.
Additional Provisions
The Commission will make recommendations after consulting relevant stakeholders. These recommendations will be documented in both Hindi and English and will be accessible online. The Commission will also work with educational institutions to support legal research and education initiatives.
Which of the following issues is the 23rd Law Commission NOT specifically tasked with addressing?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 11 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 3.
Key Points The 23rd Law Commission has several key objectives:
- Review and Repeal of Obsolete Laws: Identifying old laws that are no longer needed and suggesting their removal. They will also develop a process to review laws regularly.
- Law and Poverty: Evaluating how laws affect economically disadvantaged people and suggesting changes to benefit them.
- Judicial Administration: Finding ways to reduce court delays and make the legal process more efficient.
- Directive Principles and Constitutional Objectives: Ensuring that current laws align with the Directive Principles of State Policy, which guide the government’s policies.
- Gender Equality: Proposing changes to laws to promote equality between men and women.
- Revision of Central Acts: Simplifying important Central Acts (laws passed by the Parliament) to make them easier to understand and apply.
- Government References: Handling specific legal issues referred to them by the government.
- International Research Assistance: Providing legal research support to other countries.
- Globalization Impact: Assessing how globalization affects key social issues, such as food security.
Legal Reasoning Question 12:
Comprehension:
One of the prominent sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is Section 302, which deals with the offense of murder. Murder is a grave crime that involves the intentional and unlawful killing of another person. Section 302 provides the legal framework to prosecute and punish individuals responsible for committing this heinous act.
According to Section 302 of the IPC, a person is said to have committed murder if they cause the death of another person with the intention of causing death or with the intention of causing bodily injury that is likely to result in death. The section recognizes the importance of intent and distinguishes murder from other offenses involving unlawful killings.
Section 302 encompasses various aspects related to murder, including different types of murder such as premeditated murder, murder by sudden provocation, and murder committed in furtherance of certain offenses. It also outlines the punishment for murder is severe, including death penalty or imprisonment for life, and may also include a fine depending on the circumstances and gravity of the crime.
The objective of Section 302 is to establish a strong deterrent against the act of murder and ensure that those who commit such acts face appropriate consequences. The law seeks to protect the sanctity of human life and provide justice to the victim and their family members. It also serves as a mechanism to maintain law and order within society by punishing individuals who unlawfully take the lives of others.
X knows Y is suffering from a particular disease in which he can die if given a simple blow. X causes a simple blow to Y with an intention to cause bodily injury. Y dies. X is guilty of:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 12 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 1.
Key Points
- In this case, X perfectly knows about the disease of Y and even X also knows that the consequences of diseases therefore X causes a simple blow to Y with an intention to cause bodily injury and Y dies. That's why, X is guilty of murder because Section 300 (Murder) in IPC, Explanation 2 refers to if it is done with intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused.
Additional Information Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code
- Section 300 IPC is one of the provisions relating to the offence of “Murder. According to this section, culpable homicide is considered as murder if:
- The act by which the death is caused is committed with an intention to cause death.
- The act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury that the offender has knowledge that it would likely result in death.
- The act is committed with the intention of causing bodily injury to a person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature.
- The person committing the act knows that his act is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability, result in death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.
Legal Reasoning Question 13:
Comprehension:
Adding to the list, workplace harassment — verbal, sexual or otherwise — may also play a role in such exits. If the number of cases reported under the PoSH Act is anything to go by, a look at just the figures from the top four IT firms shows that instances are rising again after a brief pause during the pandemic. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act) was introduced over a decade ago to protect women against workplace sexual harassment.
A coworker repeatedly makes unwanted sexual advances, sends unsolicited explicit emails, and displays sexually suggestive materials on their desk. What form of sexual harassment is this?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 13 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 4.
Key Points Visual sexual harassment
- It can include obscene or sexually explicit images in the forms of posters, email attachments, photographs, screensavers, wallpaper on a computer, texts and other graphic images that offend the colleague.
- Visual sexual harassment often goes hand-in-hand with other types of harassment; however, it does not have to involve physical touching or verbal sexual harassment. Forcing someone to view sexually offensive or insulting visuals or images is enough to constitute sexual harassment.
Legal Reasoning Question 14:
Comprehension:
Two observations made in different contexts by the Supreme Court of India have raised relevant issues concerning personal liberty. The cases related to actions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), and the significance of these observations lies in the extent to which courts are inclined to protect personal liberty in the face of a determined government that wants its agencies to have their way. One concerned the question whether an officer arresting a person on money-laundering charges should demonstrate the necessity for arrest for the action to be deemed valid; and the other voiced shock and revulsion at the ease and quickness with which courts were staying reasoned orders granting bail. A Bench headed by Justice Sanjiv Khanna granted interim bail, for the second time since his arrest in March, to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, in the course of a discussion on the legality of his arrest by the Enforcement Directorate (ED). The 64-page verdict ended with a reference to a larger Bench the question whether the ED would have to prove the need or “necessity to arrest” a person, before effecting an arrest. Section 19 of PMLA speaks of the arresting officer being required to have “reason to believe” that the person is guilty of money-laundering before effecting arrest.
The PMLA casts a statutory obligation on an officer to both record reasons for arrest and convey grounds for arrest to the accused. Whether these obligations include a duty to demonstrate the necessity to arrest the person will have to be decided. It is established that the existence of a power is not sufficient justification for exercising it. The heartening feature of the Court’s order is that it lays down the view that the authorised officer’s decision on arrest ought to be rooted in compliance with statutory requirements, and one that a magistrate or judge can examine. The Court has also done well to reiterate that arrests under the PMLA cannot be on a mere whim; and that decisions during investigation should consider exculpatory material too, and not merely material against the accused. The other issue, regarding another Bench’s shock over courts staying bail orders, touches upon a key aspect of contemporary judicial functioning. The vehemence with which the prosecution argues its case, be it against bail or challenging a court’s order granting it, seems to be a major factor in the approach of higher courts. As the Bench noted, a stay on reasoned orders ought to be rare exceptions based on grounds such as perversity by the lower court, and not done as a matter of routine
What is the significance of “reasoned orders” in the context of bail decisions as discussed in the article?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 14 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 3.
Key Points
- "Reasoned orders" refer to bail orders that contain thorough justifications from lower courts.
- The Supreme Court indicated that stays of such reasoned orders should be rare and based on solid grounds, such as a serious error by the lower court.
Legal Reasoning Question 15:
Comprehension:
Two observations made in different contexts by the Supreme Court of India have raised relevant issues concerning personal liberty. The cases related to actions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), and the significance of these observations lies in the extent to which courts are inclined to protect personal liberty in the face of a determined government that wants its agencies to have their way. One concerned the question whether an officer arresting a person on money-laundering charges should demonstrate the necessity for arrest for the action to be deemed valid; and the other voiced shock and revulsion at the ease and quickness with which courts were staying reasoned orders granting bail. A Bench headed by Justice Sanjiv Khanna granted interim bail, for the second time since his arrest in March, to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, in the course of a discussion on the legality of his arrest by the Enforcement Directorate (ED). The 64-page verdict ended with a reference to a larger Bench the question whether the ED would have to prove the need or “necessity to arrest” a person, before effecting an arrest. Section 19 of PMLA speaks of the arresting officer being required to have “reason to believe” that the person is guilty of money-laundering before effecting arrest.
The PMLA casts a statutory obligation on an officer to both record reasons for arrest and convey grounds for arrest to the accused. Whether these obligations include a duty to demonstrate the necessity to arrest the person will have to be decided. It is established that the existence of a power is not sufficient justification for exercising it. The heartening feature of the Court’s order is that it lays down the view that the authorised officer’s decision on arrest ought to be rooted in compliance with statutory requirements, and one that a magistrate or judge can examine. The Court has also done well to reiterate that arrests under the PMLA cannot be on a mere whim; and that decisions during investigation should consider exculpatory material too, and not merely material against the accused. The other issue, regarding another Bench’s shock over courts staying bail orders, touches upon a key aspect of contemporary judicial functioning. The vehemence with which the prosecution argues its case, be it against bail or challenging a court’s order granting it, seems to be a major factor in the approach of higher courts. As the Bench noted, a stay on reasoned orders ought to be rare exceptions based on grounds such as perversity by the lower court, and not done as a matter of routine
According to the observations, what is required of an arresting officer under Section 19 of PMLA?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Legal Reasoning Question 15 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is Option 2.
Key Points
- Section 19 of the PMLA requires the arresting officer to have "reason to believe" that the person is guilty of money laundering before making an arrest.
- The officer is also required to record reasons for arrest and convey the grounds to the accused.