Polity MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Polity - Download Free PDF

Last updated on Feb 27, 2025

Latest Polity MCQ Objective Questions

Polity Question 1:

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court propound the Doctrine of Essentiality?

  1. Shirur Mutt case (1954)
  2. Golaknath case (1967)
  3. Keshavananda Bharti case (1973)
  4. Maneka Gandhi case (1978)

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Shirur Mutt case (1954)

Polity Question 1 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is option 1

Key Points

  • Shirur Mutt case (1954): The Supreme Court propounded the Doctrine of Essentiality in this case, where it was held that essential religious practices are those fundamental to a religion. Not following them would alter the religion itself. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
  • The doctrine emphasizes that Article 25 of the Constitution, which protects the freedom of religion, is violated if essential religious practices are denied.
  • Essential religious practices are those which are so fundamental that without them, the religion would not remain the same

Polity Question 2:

Which one of the following is correct about minority rights under the Indian Constitution?

  1. A minority institution loses its minority status by admitting students from non-minority communities.
  2. Secular education cannot be provided in a minority institution without affecting its minority character.
  3. A minority institution that receives government aid cannot compel students to participate in religious instruction.
  4. A minority is not entitled to establish and administer educational institutions under Article 30.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : A minority institution that receives government aid cannot compel students to participate in religious instruction.

Polity Question 2 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is option 3

Key Points

  • A minority institution that receives government aid cannot compel students to participate in religious instruction, as per the Supreme Court’s ruling.
    • However, if the institution is fully funded by the state, it cannot provide religious instruction at all, but still retains its minority status. The key point is that students should not be forced into religious activities. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    • A minority institution does not lose its minority character by admitting students from non-minority communities. The primary purpose of a minority institution should be the conservation of language and culture, but it is not required to be the sole purpose.
  • Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This right is protected and cannot be denied based on the institution's minority status.

Additional Information

  • Article 30(1) ensures that minority communities (based on religion or language) can establish and manage their educational institutions without interference from the government.

  • Minority institutions can provide religious education but cannot compel non-minority students to participate, especially if they receive government funding.

Polity Question 3:

Consider the following pairs:

Law Provision Related to
1. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 Cyber Crimes and Terrorism
2. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 Electronic Evidence and Community Service
3. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 Zero FIR and Trial in Absentia


How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Only one

Polity Question 3 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 deals with terrorism, cybercrimes, organized crime, and mob lynching (Related to Cyber Crimes and Terrorism). Hence, Pair 1 is correct.
  • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 includes provisions like Zero FIR, electronic trials, and modifications in bail provisions (Related to Zero FIR and Trial in Absentia). Hence, Pair 2 is incorrect.
  • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 addresses the admission of electronic evidence and defines community service as punishment (Related to Electronic Evidence and Community Service). Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect

Additional Information

  • The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita also enhances penalties for crimes against women and children and introduces community service as a form of punishment.
  • The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita seeks to modernize criminal procedures with provisions for electronic trials and easier bail processes for undertrials.
  • The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam emphasizes the inclusion of electronic evidence in court proceedings, which is essential for modern-day cases involving digital crimes.

Polity Question 4:

Consider the following statements regarding in elections:

Statement-I: The Indian Constitution prohibits questioning any election to Parliament or a State Legislature except through an election petition filed as per the law.

Statement-II: Once the Election Commission of India (ECI) officially notifies the election process, courts cannot intervene.

Statement-III: An election petition challenging the validity of an election must be filed in the Supreme Court, which has original jurisdiction over such petitions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both of them explain Statement I.
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement I.
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct, and that explains Statement I.
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Only one of the Statements II and III is correct, and that explains Statement I.

Polity Question 4 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is option 3.
 

 Key Points

  • Article 329(b) bars judicial intervention in elections except through an election petition, which must be filed as per laws made by the appropriate legislature (i.e., Representation of the People Act, 1951). Hence, Statement I is correct
  • The Supreme Court in N. P. Ponnuswami (1952) case ruled that once ECI notifies an election, courts cannot interfere, reinforcing the intent of Article 329(b) to prevent unnecessary judicial delays in the electoral process. Hence, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
  • Under the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, election petitions are filed in the respective High Court, not the Supreme Court, which has appellate jurisdiction over them. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
     

Additional Information

  • Section 80 of the RPA, 1951, states that election validity can be challenged only through an election petition.
  • Election petitions can be filed by candidates or electors (eligible voters in that election).
  • The High Court has original jurisdiction over election petitions, while appeals lie with the Supreme Court

Polity Question 5:

The recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission relates to -

  1. Distribution of Revenue
  2. Powers and functions of the President of India
  3. Membership of Parliament
  4. Center - State relations
  5. None of the above

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Center - State relations

Polity Question 5 Detailed Solution

The recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission relates to centre-state relations. Key Points

  • The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission relate to Center-State relations.
  • It does not cover the distribution of revenue, powers and functions of the President of India, or membership of Parliament.
  • The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between the state and central governments in India.
  • The Commission submitted its report in 1988, which contained 247 recommendations.
  • Some of the key recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission include:
    • ​The appointment of governors should be made in consultation with the chief ministers of the states concerned.
    • The powers of the governors should be clarified and circumscribed.
    • The use of Article 356 (the President's rule) should be made more difficult.
    • The financial relations between the centre and the states should be reviewed.
    • The role of the Inter-State Council should be strengthened.
  • The Sarkaria Commission's recommendations have not been fully implemented, but they remain an important reference point for discussions on Center-State relations in India.

Additional Information

  •  Here are the specific recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission that relate to Center-State relations:
    • Appointment of governors
      • The Commission recommended that the appointment of governors should be made in consultation with the chief ministers of the states concerned.
      • This is to ensure that the governors are not seen as agents of the central government, but rather as impartial representatives of the Union.
    • Role of governors
      • The Commission recommended that the powers of the governors should be clarified and circumscribed.
      • This is to prevent governors from interfering in the affairs of the states.
    • Use of Article 356
      • The Commission recommended that the use of Article 356 (the President's rule) should be made more difficult.
      • This is to prevent the central government from using Article 356 to dismiss state governments for political reasons.
    • Financial relations
      • The Commission recommended that the financial relations between the centre and the states should be reviewed.
      • This is to ensure that the states have adequate resources to carry out their functions.
    • Inter-State Council: 
      • The Commission recommended that the role of the Inter-State Council should be strengthened.
      • This is to provide a forum for the centre and the states to discuss and resolve their differences.

Top Polity MCQ Objective Questions

Rule ________ (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha) does NOT involve a formal motion before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take place after discussion on matters under this rule.

  1. 149
  2. 193
  3. 186
  4. 158

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : 193

Polity Question 6 Detailed Solution

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  • Rule 193 (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha) does not involve a formal motion before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take place after the discussion on matters under this rule.
  • Rule 184 allows voting but rule 193 doesn't.
  • Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament, while Rajya Sabha is the upper house.

Article 32 belongs to which part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Part II
  2. Part I
  3. Part III
  4. Part IV

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Part III

Polity Question 7 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

  • Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court to seek justice.
  • Under Article 32, the parliament can also entrust any other court to exercise the power of the Supreme Court, provided that it is within its Jurisdiction.
  • Article 32 is for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • The nature of the Writ Jurisdiction provided under this Article is discretionary.
  • There are five types of Writs as provided under Article 32 of the Constitution:
    • Habeas Corpus.
    • Quo Warranto.
    • Mandamus.
    • Certiorari.
    • Prohibition.

Additional Information

Part of Constitution Subject Matter Articles
Part I Union and its Territory 1 to 4
Part II Citizenship 5 to 11
Part III Fundamental Rights 12 to 35
Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy 36 to 51

Which of the following provision is not borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the Canadian Constitution?

  1. Federal system with fortified center
  2. Appointment of state governors by the center
  3. Advisory adjudication of supreme court
  4. Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha

Polity Question 8 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha.

  • The procedure for the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha is borrowed from Ireland.

Key Points

  • Canadian Constitution
    • Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
    • A federal system with a strong center.
    • Residual powers vest at the center.
    • Appointment of State Governors.

Additional Information

Sources of Indian Constitution

Source Provisions
Indian Govt. Act 1935
  • Federal system
  • Power of the judiciary
  • Public service commission
  • Governor's office,
  • Administrative details.
USA 
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Independence of Judiciary
  • Judicial Review
  • Impeachment of the President
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
  • Post of Vice President
Britain
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative Procedure
  • Single citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameral system 
  • Prerogative writs
Irish
  • DPSPs
  • Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of President
Russia (Soviet Union)
  • Fundamental Duties
  • The ideal of Justice in the Preamble
France
  • Republic
  • Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity
South Africa
  • The procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
  • Election of members of the Rajya Sabha.
Japan
  • The procedure established by law

Which of the following constitutional amendments provided for the Right to Education?

  1. 88th amendment
  2. 89th amendment
  3. 87th amendment
  4. 86th amendment

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : 86th amendment

Polity Question 9 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is the 86th amendment.

Key Points

  • The 86th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002, provided the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right in Part-III of the Constitution.
  • The amendment inserted Article 21A which made the Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
  • The 86th amendment provided for follow-up legislation for Right to Education Bill 2008 and finally Right to Education Act, 2009.
Amendment Description
87th amendment It extends the usage of 2001 national census population figures for statewide distribution of Parliamentary seats.
88th amendment It extended the statutory cover for levy and utilization of service tax.
89th amendment The National Commission of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was bifurcated into the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

Who was the Prime Minister of India during Indo-Pak war in 1965?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  4. Rajiv Gandhi 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Lal Bahadur Shastri

Polity Question 10 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Key Points

  • Lal Bahadur Shastri was the second Prime minister in India.
    • He served as the Prime minister of India from 1964 to 1966.
    • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1965.
    • His birthday also falls on 2nd October along with Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.
    • The famous slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" was raised by Lal Bahadur Shastri.
    • He signed on Tashkent Declaration along with the then-President of Pakistan Muhammad Ayub Khan on 10th January 1966.
    • He is the first prime minister to die abroad.
    • He was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in 1966.
    • He was the first person to receive Bharat Ratna posthumously.
    • The resting place of Lal Bahadur Shastri is called Vijayghat.

Additional Information

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
  • Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1971.
  • Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when the Bhopal gas tragedy took place in 1984.

The idea of the Concurrent List has been taken from the constitution of ________.

  1. South Africa
  2. Australia
  3. Canada
  4. Germany

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Australia

Polity Question 11 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

The following things have been borrowed from the Constitution of Australia:

  1. Concurrent List.
  2. Freedom of trade.
  3. Commerce and intercourse.
  4. The joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • The other borrowed provisions from different countries and details of those are given in below:
Countries  Borrowed Provisions
Australia
  • Concurrent list
  • Freedom of trade, commerce
  • Joint-sitting of the two Houses of Parliament

Canada

  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
  • Appointment of state governors by the Centre
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Ireland
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • The nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of the President
Japan
  • Procedure Established by law
Russia
  • Fundamental duties
  • Ideals of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble
United Kingdom
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative procedure
  • Single Citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Prerogative writs
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameralism
The United States of America
  • Fundamental rights
  • Independence of judiciary
  • Judicial review
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
  • Post of vice-president
Germany
  • Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
South Africa
  • Procedure for amendment in the Indian Constitution
  • Election of members of Rajya Sabha
France
  • Republic
  • Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble

In which city is Indian Railway-Rail Coach Factory located?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. Kapurthala
  3. Chennai
  4. Chittaranjan

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Kapurthala

Polity Question 12 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Kapurthala.

Important Points

  • Kapurthala Rail Coach Factory is a coach manufacturing unit for the Indian Railways, located in the state of Punjab.
  • It is located on the Jalandhar-Firozpur railway line. 
  • Established in 1986, RCF has manufactured more than 30,000 passenger coaches of various types, including self-propelled passenger vehicles, making up more than 50% of the total Indian Railway coach population.
  • It is a production unit with a per-year target of 1025 coaches.
  • This production accounts for over 35 per cent of the total Indian Railway coach population.
  • In the financial year 2013-14, the Rail Coach Factory (RCF) generated a record number of coaches as it achieved the mark of 1701 coaches against an installed capacity of 1500 per annum.
  • RCF manufactured 23 different coach variants for high-speed trains such as Rajdhani, Shatabdi, double-decker, and other trains during the year.
  • A highly cost-effective indigenous technology for the treatment of biowaste in coaches was also developed by the factory in association with DRDE.
  • In 2013–14, approximately 2096 bio-toilets were installed.
  • Linke-Hofmann-Busch (LHB) coaches have already been exported by the factory to Southeast Asian and African countries with Metre Gauge rail networks and the experience of Indian Railways in Meter Gauge rolling stock has proven handy in serving these markets.

                       Railways coach factory, Kapurthala

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Where is the National Institute Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) located?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Jaipur
  3. Hisar
  4. Bhopal

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Jaipur

Polity Question 13 Detailed Solution

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The Correct answer is Jaipur.Key Points:

  • National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is a national level institute set up by the Ministry of Agriculture, on 8 August 1988 at Jaipur, Rajasthan, to cater to the needs of agricultural marketing personnel and to offer specialized Training, Research, Consultancy, and Education in Agricultural Marketing in India and Southeast Asian countries.
  • The institute is dedicated to Chaudhary Charan Singh, the fifth prime minister of India from where it derives its full name, "Chaudhary Charan Singh National Institute of Agricultural Marketing".
  • The Union Minister for Agriculture is the President of the General body of NIAM and the Secretary, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation is the Chairman of the Executive Committee.

Additional Information

Major research institutes of India:-

Research Institute Place
Central Drug research institute Lucknow
Central Leprosy Training and Research Institute Chengalpattu, Tamil Nadu
 
King Institute of Preventive Medicine Guindy (Chennai)
Central Sugarcane Research Institute Coimbatore
Central Electro-Chemical Research Institute Karaikudi
Central Leather Research Institute Chennai
Central Food Technological Research Institute Mysore (Karnataka)
Central Institute of Virology Pune (Maharashtra)
Indian Lac Research Institute Ranchi (Jharkhand)
Central Jute Technological Research Institute Kolkata
Archaeological Survey of India Calcutta (HQ)
School of Tropical Medicine Kolkata
National Geophysics Research Institute Hyderabad
National Institute of Nutrition Hyderabad
Central Mining Research Institute Dhanbad
Central Salt and Marine Chemical Research Institute Bhavnagar
Central Rice Research Institute Cuttack
Central Forest Research Institute Dehradun (Uttarakhand)
Indian Cancer Research Institute Mumbai

Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides Right to _______.

  1. Work
  2. Privacy
  3. Equality
  4. Education

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Education

Polity Question 14 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

  • There are six fundamental rights enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the constitution of India.
  • Fundamental rights apply universally to all citizens, irrespective of race, birthplace, religion, caste or gender.
  • Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides the Right to Education.
  • The RTE Act of the Parliament of India was enacted on 4 August 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010.
  • The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Additional Information

  • The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution are-
Fundamental Right Article
Right to equality  (14 - 18)
Right to freedom  (19 - 22)
Right against exploitation  (23 - 24)

Right to freedom of religion

(25 - 28)
Cultural and educational rights  (29 - 30)
Right to constitutional remedies  (32)

The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is __________.

  1. Judicial Procedure
  2. Quasi - Judicial Procedure
  3. Legislative Procedure
  4. Executive Procedure

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Quasi - Judicial Procedure

Polity Question 15 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.

Important Points

  • The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.
  • The procedure begins with the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament.
  • The only condition for the initiation of the impeachment of the Indian president is the ‘violation of the constitution.
  • None of the presidents of India has faced impeachment so far.
  • A quasi-judicial body is an organ of Government other than a Court or Legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either through adjudication or rulemaking”.
  • It is not mandatory that a Quasi-Judicial Body has to necessarily be an organization resembling a Court of Law.
    • For example, the Election Commission of India is also a Quasi-Judicial Body but does not have its core functions as a Court of Law.
  • Some examples of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are the Election Commission of India, the National Green Tribunal, and the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Key Points

  • Process of Impeachment of the President of India:
    • When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
    • For the motion to be valid, it must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of the house where it is introduced
    • In the case of the Lok Sabha, this means that the motion must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total Lok Sabha members.
    • A 14-day notice is given to the President of India.
    • Then, Lok Sabha passes the impeachment charges with a two-thirds majority and sends it to Rajya Sabha.
    • Then, the Rajya Sabha investigates the charges.
    • While Rajya Sabha is investigating the charges, the President has the right to sit in the proceedings.
    • Rajya Sabha agrees to the charges and passes it with a two-thirds majority and the President is removed.
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