Polity MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Polity - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is option 1

Key Points

• Shirur Mutt case (1954): The Supreme Court propounded the Doctrine of Essentiality in this case, where it was held that essential religious practices are those fundamental to a religion. Not following them would alter the religion itself. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
• The doctrine emphasizes that Article 25 of the Constitution, which protects the freedom of religion, is violated if essential religious practices are denied.
• Essential religious practices are those which are so fundamental that without them, the religion would not remain the same

The correct answer is option 3

Key Points

• A minority institution that receives government aid cannot compel students to participate in religious instruction, as per the Supreme Court’s ruling.
  • However, if the institution is fully funded by the state, it cannot provide religious instruction at all, but still retains its minority status. The key point is that students should not be forced into religious activities. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • A minority institution does not lose its minority character by admitting students from non-minority communities. The primary purpose of a minority institution should be the conservation of language and culture, but it is not required to be the sole purpose.
• Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This right is protected and cannot be denied based on the institution's minority status.

Additional Information

•    Article 30(1) ensures that minority communities (based on religion or language) can establish and manage their educational institutions without interference from the government.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 deals with terrorism, cybercrimes, organized crime, and mob lynching (Related to Cyber Crimes and Terrorism). Hence, Pair 1 is correct.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 includes provisions like Zero FIR, electronic trials, and modifications in bail provisions (Related to Zero FIR and Trial in Absentia). Hence, Pair 2 is incorrect.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 addresses the admission of electronic evidence and defines community service as punishment (Related to Electronic Evidence and Community Service). Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect

Additional Information

• The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita also enhances penalties for crimes against women and children and introduces community service as a form of punishment.
• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita seeks to modernize criminal procedures with provisions for electronic trials and easier bail processes for undertrials.
• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam emphasizes the inclusion of electronic evidence in court proceedings, which is essential for modern-day cases involving digital crimes.

The correct answer is option 3.
 

 Key Points

• Article 329(b) bars judicial intervention in elections except through an election petition, which must be filed as per laws made by the appropriate legislature (i.e., Representation of the People Act, 1951). Hence, Statement I is correct
• The Supreme Court in N. P. Ponnuswami (1952) case ruled that once ECI notifies an election, courts cannot interfere, reinforcing the intent of Article 329(b) to prevent unnecessary judicial delays in the electoral process. Hence, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
• Under the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, election petitions are filed in the respective High Court, not the Supreme Court, which has appellate jurisdiction over them. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
   

Additional Information

• Section 80 of the RPA, 1951, states that election validity can be challenged only through an election petition.
• Election petitions can be filed by candidates or electors (eligible voters in that election).
• The High Court has original jurisdiction over election petitions, while appeals lie with the Supreme Court

The recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission relates to centre-state relations. Key Points

• The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission relate to Center-State relations.
• It does not cover the distribution of revenue, powers and functions of the President of India, or membership of Parliament.
• The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between the state and central governments in India.
• The Commission submitted its report in 1988, which contained 247 recommendations.
• Some of the key recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission include:
  • ​The appointment of governors should be made in consultation with the chief ministers of the states concerned.
  • The powers of the governors should be clarified and circumscribed.
  • The use of Article 356 (the President's rule) should be made more difficult.
  • The financial relations between the centre and the states should be reviewed.
  • The role of the Inter-State Council should be strengthened.
• The Sarkaria Commission's recommendations have not been fully implemented, but they remain an important reference point for discussions on Center-State relations in India.

Additional Information

•  Here are the specific recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission that relate to Center-State relations:
  • ​Appointment of governors: 
    • The Commission recommended that the appointment of governors should be made in consultation with the chief ministers of the states concerned.
    • This is to ensure that the governors are not seen as agents of the central government, but rather as impartial representatives of the Union.
  • Role of governors: 
    • The Commission recommended that the powers of the governors should be clarified and circumscribed.
    • This is to prevent governors from interfering in the affairs of the states.
  • Use of Article 356: 
    • The Commission recommended that the use of Article 356 (the President's rule) should be made more difficult.
    • This is to prevent the central government from using Article 356 to dismiss state governments for political reasons.
  • Financial relations: 
    • The Commission recommended that the financial relations between the centre and the states should be reviewed.
    • This is to ensure that the states have adequate resources to carry out their functions.
  • Inter-State Council: 
    • The Commission recommended that the role of the Inter-State Council should be strengthened.
    • This is to provide a forum for the centre and the states to discuss and resolve their differences.

• Rule 193 (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha) does not involve a formal motion before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take place after the discussion on matters under this rule.
• Rule 184 allows voting but rule 193 doesn't.
• Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament, while Rajya Sabha is the upper house.

The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court to seek justice.
• Under Article 32, the parliament can also entrust any other court to exercise the power of the Supreme Court, provided that it is within its Jurisdiction.
• Article 32 is for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• The nature of the Writ Jurisdiction provided under this Article is discretionary.

• There are five types of Writs as provided under Article 32 of the Constitution:
  • Habeas Corpus.
  • Quo Warranto.
  • Mandamus.
  • Certiorari.
  • Prohibition.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha.

• The procedure for the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha is borrowed from Ireland.

Key Points

• Canadian Constitution: 
  • Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
  • A federal system with a strong center.
  • Residual powers vest at the center.
  • Appointment of State Governors.

Additional Information

Sources of Indian Constitution

The correct answer is the 86^th amendment.

Key Points

• The 86^th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002, provided the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right in Part-III of the Constitution.
• The amendment inserted Article 21A which made the Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
• The 86^th amendment provided for follow-up legislation for Right to Education Bill 2008 and finally Right to Education Act, 2009.

The correct answer is Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Key Points

• Lal Bahadur Shastri was the second Prime minister in India.
  • He served as the Prime minister of India from 1964 to 1966.
  • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1965.
  • His birthday also falls on 2^nd October along with Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.
  • The famous slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" was raised by Lal Bahadur Shastri.
  • He signed on Tashkent Declaration along with the then-President of Pakistan Muhammad Ayub Khan on 10^th January 1966.
  • He is the first prime minister to die abroad.
  • He was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in 1966.
  • He was the first person to receive Bharat Ratna posthumously.
  • The resting place of Lal Bahadur Shastri is called Vijayghat.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
• Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1971.
• Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when the Bhopal gas tragedy took place in 1984.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

The following things have been borrowed from the Constitution of Australia:

1. Concurrent List.
2. Freedom of trade.
3. Commerce and intercourse.
4. The joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

Additional Information

• The other borrowed provisions from different countries and details of those are given in below:

The correct answer is Kapurthala.

Important Points

• Kapurthala Rail Coach Factory is a coach manufacturing unit for the Indian Railways, located in the state of Punjab.
• It is located on the Jalandhar-Firozpur railway line. 
• Established in 1986, RCF has manufactured more than 30,000 passenger coaches of various types, including self-propelled passenger vehicles, making up more than 50% of the total Indian Railway coach population.
• It is a production unit with a per-year target of 1025 coaches.
• This production accounts for over 35 per cent of the total Indian Railway coach population.
• In the financial year 2013-14, the Rail Coach Factory (RCF) generated a record number of coaches as it achieved the mark of 1701 coaches against an installed capacity of 1500 per annum.
• RCF manufactured 23 different coach variants for high-speed trains such as Rajdhani, Shatabdi, double-decker, and other trains during the year.
• A highly cost-effective indigenous technology for the treatment of biowaste in coaches was also developed by the factory in association with DRDE.
• In 2013–14, approximately 2096 bio-toilets were installed.
• Linke-Hofmann-Busch (LHB) coaches have already been exported by the factory to Southeast Asian and African countries with Metre Gauge rail networks and the experience of Indian Railways in Meter Gauge rolling stock has proven handy in serving these markets.

                       Railways coach factory, Kapurthala

​

The Correct answer is Jaipur.Key Points:

• National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is a national level institute set up by the Ministry of Agriculture, on 8 August 1988 at Jaipur, Rajasthan, to cater to the needs of agricultural marketing personnel and to offer specialized Training, Research, Consultancy, and Education in Agricultural Marketing in India and Southeast Asian countries.
• The institute is dedicated to Chaudhary Charan Singh, the fifth prime minister of India from where it derives its full name, "Chaudhary Charan Singh National Institute of Agricultural Marketing".
• The Union Minister for Agriculture is the President of the General body of NIAM and the Secretary, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation is the Chairman of the Executive Committee.

Additional Information

Major research institutes of India:-

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

• There are six fundamental rights enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the constitution of India.
• Fundamental rights apply universally to all citizens, irrespective of race, birthplace, religion, caste or gender.
• Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides the Right to Education.
• The RTE Act of the Parliament of India was enacted on 4 August 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010.
• The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Additional Information

• The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution are-

The correct answer is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.

Important Points

• The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.
• The procedure begins with the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament.
• The only condition for the initiation of the impeachment of the Indian president is the ‘violation of the constitution.
• None of the presidents of India has faced impeachment so far.
• A quasi-judicial body is an organ of Government other than a Court or Legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either through adjudication or rulemaking”.
• It is not mandatory that a Quasi-Judicial Body has to necessarily be an organization resembling a Court of Law.
  • For example, the Election Commission of India is also a Quasi-Judicial Body but does not have its core functions as a Court of Law.
• Some examples of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are the Election Commission of India, the National Green Tribunal, and the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Key Points

• Process of Impeachment of the President of India:
  • When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
  • For the motion to be valid, it must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of the house where it is introduced
  • In the case of the Lok Sabha, this means that the motion must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total Lok Sabha members.
  • A 14-day notice is given to the President of India.
  • Then, Lok Sabha passes the impeachment charges with a two-thirds majority and sends it to Rajya Sabha.
  • Then, the Rajya Sabha investigates the charges.
  • While Rajya Sabha is investigating the charges, the President has the right to sit in the proceedings.
  • Rajya Sabha agrees to the charges and passes it with a two-thirds majority and the President is removed.