Medical Laboratory Technician MCQ Quiz in தமிழ் - Objective Question with Answer for Medical Laboratory Technician - இலவச PDF ஐப் பதிவிறக்கவும்
Last updated on Mar 8, 2025
பெறு Medical Laboratory Technician பதில்கள் மற்றும் விரிவான தீர்வுகளுடன் கூடிய பல தேர்வு கேள்விகள் (MCQ வினாடிவினா). இவற்றை இலவசமாகப் பதிவிறக்கவும் Medical Laboratory Technician MCQ வினாடி வினா Pdf மற்றும் வங்கி, SSC, ரயில்வே, UPSC, மாநில PSC போன்ற உங்களின் வரவிருக்கும் தேர்வுகளுக்குத் தயாராகுங்கள்.
Latest Medical Laboratory Technician MCQ Objective Questions
Top Medical Laboratory Technician MCQ Objective Questions
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 1:
Which of the following test is performed to detect presence of Rh-antibodies in patient's serum?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Indirect Coombs test (ICT)
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Indirect Coombs test (ICT)
Rationale:
- The Indirect Coombs test (ICT) is performed to detect the presence of Rh-antibodies in a patient's serum. This test is crucial in prenatal testing for Rh incompatibility and in blood transfusion compatibility testing.
- In this test, the patient's serum is incubated with red blood cells that have known antigenic profiles, including Rh antigens. If Rh-antibodies are present in the serum, they will bind to the antigens on the red blood cells.
- The red blood cells are then washed to remove unbound antibodies, and Coombs reagent (anti-human globulin) is added. If agglutination occurs, it indicates the presence of Rh-antibodies.
Explanation of Other Options:
Cross matching test
- Rationale: The cross matching test is performed to ensure compatibility between the donor's and recipient's blood before transfusion. It involves mixing the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells to check for agglutination, which would indicate an incompatibility.
Direct Coombs test (DCT)
- Rationale: The Direct Coombs test (DCT) is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins that are already bound to the surface of red blood cells in the patient's body. This test is commonly used in diagnosing autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Pandy's test
- Rationale: Pandy's test is used to detect elevated levels of proteins in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which can be an indication of conditions like meningitis or multiple sclerosis. It is not related to detecting Rh-antibodies.
Conclusion:
- The Indirect Coombs test (ICT) is specifically designed to detect Rh-antibodies in the patient's serum, making it the correct choice for this purpose. Other tests, such as the cross-matching test, Direct Coombs test, and Pandy's test, serve different diagnostic roles.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 2:
What is the main limitation of air-dried cytological smears?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Loss of nuclear detail
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Loss of nuclear detail
Rationale:
- Air-dried cytological smears often suffer from a loss of nuclear detail. This is primarily because air drying can cause the cells to shrink and the nuclear chromatin to clump, making it difficult to discern nuclear features accurately.
- In cytology, the preservation of nuclear detail is crucial for accurate diagnosis and evaluation. Poor nuclear detail can hinder the identification of cellular abnormalities and malignancies.
Explanation of Other Options:
Cellular distortion
- Rationale: While air drying can cause some degree of cellular distortion, this is not the primary limitation. The most significant issue with air-dried smears is the loss of nuclear detail, which is more critical for cytological assessments.
Uneven staining
- Rationale: Uneven staining can occur in both air-dried and wet-fixed smears, depending on the staining technique used. It is not a limitation unique to air-dried smears. The primary concern remains the loss of nuclear detail.
Limited preservation time
- Rationale: While preservation time can be a concern, air-dried smears can generally be preserved for a reasonable period if stored properly. The loss of nuclear detail is a more immediate and impactful limitation.
Conclusion:
- The main limitation of air-dried cytological smears is the loss of nuclear detail. This affects the ability to accurately evaluate and diagnose cellular abnormalities, which is crucial in cytological examinations.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 3:
Which of the following is an example of exfoliative cytology?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Sputum cytology
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Sputum cytology
Rationale:
- Exfoliative cytology is the study of cells that are shed or exfoliated from epithelial surfaces. It is commonly used to detect cancer, infections, and other conditions by examining cells collected from body surfaces or fluids.
- Sputum cytology is an example of exfoliative cytology. It involves the examination of cells expectorated from the lungs, bronchi, or trachea. These cells can provide valuable information about respiratory diseases, including lung cancer, infections, and chronic lung conditions.
- The collected sputum sample is processed and examined under a microscope to identify any abnormal cells, pathogens, or other indicators of disease.
Explanation of Other Options:
FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology)
- Rationale: FNAC is a diagnostic procedure used to investigate lumps or masses. A thin needle is inserted into the mass for sampling of cells that are then examined under a microscope. It is not considered exfoliative cytology as it involves actively aspirating cells from a lesion rather than collecting naturally shed cells.
Bone marrow biopsy
- Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy involves the extraction of a small amount of bone marrow tissue to examine the blood cells and marrow structure. This method is invasive and does not involve the collection of exfoliated cells, making it distinct from exfoliative cytology.
Lymph node biopsy
- Rationale: A lymph node biopsy involves the removal of lymph node tissue to diagnose or stage cancer, infection, or other diseases. Like the bone marrow biopsy, it is an invasive procedure and does not fall under the category of exfoliative cytology.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, sputum cytology is the only procedure that fits the definition of exfoliative cytology. It involves the collection and examination of cells that are naturally shed from the respiratory tract, making it a key diagnostic tool for respiratory diseases.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 4:
Which of the following is the most commonly used fixative in histology?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Formalin
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Formalin
Rationale:
- Formalin is the most commonly used fixative in histology. It is a solution of formaldehyde in water, typically at a concentration of 10% formalin (which is equivalent to 4% formaldehyde in water).
- Formalin is favored for its ability to preserve tissue morphology and cellular details by cross-linking proteins, which stabilizes the tissue structure and prevents autolysis and putrefaction.
- It is suitable for a wide variety of tissues and is compatible with many staining techniques, making it a versatile choice in histological studies.
- Formalin is also relatively inexpensive and readily available, contributing to its widespread use.
Explanation of Other Options:
Bouin’s solution
- Rationale: Bouin's solution is a fixative composed of picric acid, formaldehyde, and acetic acid. It is particularly good for preserving delicate structures and enhancing staining of connective tissues, but it can cause tissue to become brittle and is not as widely used as formalin.
Zenker’s fixative
- Rationale: Zenker’s fixative is a mercury-based fixative that contains mercuric chloride, potassium dichromate, and acetic acid. It is excellent for nuclear preservation and staining, but its use is limited due to the toxicity and disposal concerns associated with mercury.
Glutaraldehyde
- Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is a dialdehyde fixative that provides excellent preservation of ultrastructural details, making it ideal for electron microscopy. However, it is less commonly used in routine histology due to its higher cost, more complex handling requirements, and potential for causing more tissue shrinkage.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, formalin is the most commonly used fixative in histology due to its effectiveness, versatility, and cost-efficiency. While other fixatives like Bouin’s solution, Zenker’s fixative, and glutaraldehyde have specific advantages for certain applications, formalin remains the standard choice for routine histological processing.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 5:
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) containing predominantly lymphocytes is indicative of meningitis caused by:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Viruses
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Viruses
Rationale:
- Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is a crucial diagnostic tool in evaluating infections of the central nervous system, such as meningitis.
- When CSF contains predominantly lymphocytes, it often indicates a viral infection. Viral meningitis is more common and generally less severe than bacterial meningitis.
- Viruses such as enteroviruses, herpes simplex virus, and varicella-zoster virus are common causes of viral meningitis, leading to an increased lymphocyte count in the CSF.
Explanation of Other Options:
Parasites
- Rationale: Parasitic infections of the central nervous system are relatively rare and typically present with a mixed cell count in the CSF, including eosinophils, rather than predominantly lymphocytes.
Bacteria
- Rationale: Bacterial meningitis typically results in a CSF profile with a high number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) rather than lymphocytes. This type of meningitis is more severe and requires immediate medical attention.
Fungi
- Rationale: Fungal meningitis, such as that caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, often presents with a mixed or lymphocytic predominance in the CSF. However, it is less common than viral or bacterial meningitis and occurs more frequently in immunocompromised individuals.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the presence of predominantly lymphocytes in the CSF is most indicative of viral meningitis. Prompt and accurate differentiation of the type of meningitis is essential for appropriate treatment and management.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 6:
Gmelin's test is specifically used to detect which compound in urine?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Bile pigments
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 6 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Bile pigments
Rationale:
- Gmelin's test is a chemical test specifically used to detect the presence of bile pigments in urine. Bile pigments, such as bilirubin and biliverdin, are breakdown products of hemoglobin from red blood cells and are normally processed by the liver and excreted in bile.
- The test involves adding nitric acid to the urine sample. If bile pigments are present, a series of color changes—typically green, blue, violet, and red—will be observed, indicating a positive result.
- This test is important for diagnosing liver diseases, such as hepatitis and cirrhosis, where the processing of bile pigments is impaired.
Explanation of Other Options:
Sugar
- Rationale: The presence of sugar (glucose) in urine is typically detected using Benedict's test or a urine dipstick test. These tests involve chemical reactions that result in a color change if glucose is present, indicating conditions such as diabetes mellitus.
Ketone bodies
- Rationale: Ketone bodies in urine are usually detected using Rothera's test or a urine dipstick test. These tests can indicate ketosis, which occurs in conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes, prolonged fasting, or a ketogenic diet.
Bile salts
- Rationale: The presence of bile salts in urine is typically detected using Hay's sulphur test. This test relies on the ability of bile salts to lower the surface tension of urine, causing sulfur to sink, indicating liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction.
Conclusion:
- Gmelin's test is specifically used to detect bile pigments in urine, which can help diagnose liver-related conditions. The other options, such as sugar, ketone bodies, and bile salts, are detected using different specific tests that are tailored to identify these particular compounds in urine.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 7:
Melituria refers to the presence of which substance in urine?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Sugar in urine
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 7 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Sugar in urine
Rationale:
- Melituria refers to the presence of sugar, specifically glucose, in the urine. This condition is often associated with diabetes mellitus, where elevated blood glucose levels lead to the excretion of glucose in the urine due to the kidneys' inability to reabsorb it completely.
- The presence of sugar in urine indicates that the renal threshold for glucose has been exceeded, which is typically around 180 mg/dL of blood glucose. This condition can be detected using urine dipsticks that change color in the presence of glucose.
Explanation of Other Options:
Protein in urine
- Rationale: The presence of protein in the urine is known as proteinuria or albuminuria. This condition can be a sign of kidney disease, as the kidneys normally prevent significant amounts of protein from passing into the urine.
Blood in urine
- Rationale: Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine. It can be caused by various conditions, including urinary tract infections, kidney stones, trauma, or tumors in the urinary tract.
Ketone in urine
- Rationale: The presence of ketones in the urine is known as ketonuria. It occurs when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of glucose, which can happen in conditions like uncontrolled diabetes, fasting, or a low-carbohydrate diet.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, melituria specifically refers to the presence of sugar in the urine. This condition is most commonly associated with diabetes and can be an important indicator in the diagnosis and monitoring of this disease.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 8:
What is the medical term for the absence of sperm in semen?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Azoospermia
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 8 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Azoospermia
Rationale:
- Azoospermia is the medical term for the complete absence of sperm in the semen. This condition is a significant cause of male infertility and can be due to various factors such as genetic conditions, hormonal imbalances, or blockages in the male reproductive tract.
- There are two main types of azoospermia: obstructive azoospermia, where there is a physical blockage preventing sperm from being present in the semen, and non-obstructive azoospermia, which is due to a problem with sperm production.
Explanation of Other Options:
Oligospermia
- Rationale: Oligospermia refers to a condition where the sperm count in semen is lower than normal. It is not an absence of sperm, but rather a reduced number, which can also affect fertility.
Hypospermia
- Rationale: Hypospermia is a condition characterized by a low volume of semen. This is different from the absence of sperm, as the semen may still contain sperm, but in a reduced volume of ejaculate.
Hyperspermia
- Rationale: Hyperspermia is the condition where there is an abnormally high volume of semen. This is the opposite of hypospermia and does not indicate the absence of sperm.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, azoospermia is the correct term for the complete absence of sperm in the semen. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is essential for diagnosing and treating male fertility issues effectively.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 9:
Cryptosporidium parvum is identified using:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Acid-fast stain
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 9 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Acid-fast stain
Rationale:
- Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite that causes cryptosporidiosis, a disease characterized by diarrhea and gastrointestinal distress.
- The acid-fast stain is a laboratory staining technique that is particularly effective in identifying Cryptosporidium parvum. This stain binds to the cell wall of the organism, which resists decolorization by acids during the staining process, making it visible under a microscope.
- The acid-fast stain highlights the oocysts of Cryptosporidium parvum, which appear as bright red or pink against a blue or green background, thus facilitating their identification.
Explanation of Other Options:
Giemsa stain
- Rationale: The Giemsa stain is primarily used for staining blood smears and identifying parasites such as Plasmodium (malaria) and Trypanosoma. It is not effective for identifying Cryptosporidium parvum, as it does not provide the necessary contrast for the oocysts.
Wet mount
- Rationale: A wet mount involves placing a sample on a slide with a drop of liquid and covering it with a cover slip. While this method can be used for observing motility and morphology of certain parasites, it lacks the specificity and contrast needed to reliably identify Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts.
Gram stain
- Rationale: The Gram stain is a common technique used to differentiate bacterial species into Gram-positive and Gram-negative groups based on the characteristics of their cell walls. However, it is not suitable for identifying Cryptosporidium parvum, as this protozoan does not have the cell wall properties that would make it identifiable with a Gram stain.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the acid-fast stain is the most effective and appropriate method for identifying Cryptosporidium parvum. This technique provides the necessary specificity and contrast to distinguish the oocysts of the parasite, which is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of cryptosporidiosis.
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Medical Laboratory Technician Question 10:
Which antibodies are detected in the indirect Coombs test?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Free antibodies in the serum
Medical Laboratory Technician Question 10 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Free antibodies in the serum
Rationale:
- The indirect Coombs test, also known as the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT), is used to detect free antibodies that are present in the serum. These antibodies can potentially bind to red blood cells and cause their destruction.
- The test is commonly used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in blood transfusion preparations to ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood.
Explanation of Other Options:
Antibodies bound to red cells
- Rationale: This is detected by the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test identifies antibodies that are already attached to the surface of red blood cells, which can lead to hemolysis.
IgA antibodies
- Rationale: The indirect Coombs test primarily detects IgG antibodies, which are the most common antibodies involved in hemolytic reactions. IgA antibodies are not typically the focus of this test.
Platelet antibodies
- Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is designed to detect antibodies against red blood cells, not against platelets. Platelet antibodies are detected using different tests, such as the platelet antibody test or specific assays for platelet antigens.
Conclusion:
- The indirect Coombs test is an essential tool in transfusion medicine and prenatal care, as it helps detect free antibodies in the serum that could pose risks during blood transfusions or pregnancy. Understanding the specific focus of the test ensures its proper application and interpretation in clinical settings.
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