Child/Human Development MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Child/Human Development - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Placenta previa.

Key Points

Jessica is experiencing placenta previa, a condition where the placenta is implanted too low in the uterus, covering or being near the cervix. This can obstruct the baby's passage through the birth canal during labor, leading to potential complications.

Cause: The exact cause of placenta previa is not always clear, but risk factors include advanced maternal age, previous cesarean sections, and multiple pregnancies.

Symptoms: The most common symptom is painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester.

Risks: If not managed, it can cause severe bleeding during labor and delivery, posing risks to both the mother and the baby.

Treatment: The primary treatment for placenta previa is a cesarean section (C-section) to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as heavy bleeding or fetal distress.

Jessica's condition, where the placenta is covering or near the cervix, is placenta previa, and a C-section is recommended to ensure a safer delivery. 

Additional InformationAbruptio Placentae: A condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, causing bleeding and depriving the baby of oxygen and nutrients. It can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby, requiring immediate delivery.

Pre-eclampsia: A pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, typically occurring after the 20th week. It can lead to organ damage and requires careful monitoring, with early delivery often necessary in severe cases.

Gestational Diabetes: A form of diabetes that develops during pregnancy, leading to high blood sugar levels. It can affect the baby's growth and cause complications during delivery but can often be managed through diet, exercise, and sometimes insulin therapy.

The correct answer is Pre-eclampsia.

 Key Points

Sarah's symptoms, including swelling (edema) in her hands and feet and protein in her urine, are indicative of pre-eclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication.

Pre-eclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, such as protein in the urine, and it usually develops after the 20th week of pregnancy, often in the third trimester.

Risk Factors: Sarah has a history of high blood pressure, which is a major risk factor for developing pre-eclampsia.

Symptoms: In addition to swelling and proteinuria, symptoms may include headaches, vision changes, and abdominal pain.

Pre-eclampsia can lead to severe complications if left untreated, including damage to the kidneys, liver, and other organs, and it can affect the health of both the mother and the baby. If diagnosed, management often involves closer monitoring, medications to control blood pressure, and in some cases, early delivery of the baby.

Sarah is likely experiencing pre-eclampsia, given her symptoms of high blood pressure, swelling, and proteinuria.

The correct answer is ​Neural tube defects.

Key Points

Neural tube defects (NTDs) are the birth defects most commonly associated with a maternal folic acid deficiency during pregnancy. The neural tube is the structure that eventually develops into the baby's brain and spinal cord. If the neural tube does not close properly, it can result in conditions such as spina bifida (where the spinal cord is exposed) or anencephaly (where the brain does not develop fully or is absent).

Folic acid is a B-vitamin that is essential for proper neural tube development during the early stages of pregnancy, usually before the woman even realizes she is pregnant.

A lack of sufficient folic acid in the diet increases the risk of neural tube defects in the baby.

Prevention:
Taking prenatal vitamins containing folic acid before conception and during the first trimester can significantly reduce the risk of NTDs.

In Maria's case, since she has not been taking prenatal vitamins and lacks sufficient folic acid in her diet, the most common birth defect associated with this deficiency is neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly.

The correct answer is Cephalopelvic disproportion.

Key PointsCephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) occurs when there is a mismatch between the size of the baby's head (or overall body) and the mother's pelvis, making it difficult or impossible for the baby to pass through the birth canal during delivery.

Cause: CPD can be caused by factors such as:

The baby being too large (macrosomia), which can happen if the mother has gestational diabetes or if the baby is simply genetically large.
The mother having a small pelvis or an abnormally shaped pelvis, which may prevent the baby from fitting through.

Symptoms: CPD may result in a failure to progress in labor, where the cervix does not dilate properly, or the baby does not descend into the birth canal. If labor is not progressing, it can cause severe pain and complications.

Diagnosis and Treatment: CPD is typically diagnosed when there are issues during labor that prevent the baby from descending or when the baby's head or body is unable to move through the pelvis. Cesarean delivery is often required if CPD is diagnosed, as vaginal delivery can be risky for both the mother and the baby.
Cephalopelvic disproportion is the condition where the baby cannot pass through the birth canal due to a size mismatch between the baby and the mother's pelvis.

Additional Information Pre-eclampsia: High blood pressure and organ damage in pregnancy, requiring careful monitoring and sometimes early delivery.
Prolapsed Umbilical Cord: The umbilical cord slips ahead of the baby during labor, risking oxygen loss and requiring quick intervention.
Shoulder Dystocia: The baby’s shoulder gets stuck during delivery, needing immediate maneuvers to prevent injury to the baby.

The correct answer is  Down syndrome.

Key Points Down syndrome is the most common genetic birth defect caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21). This condition affects physical and intellectual development.

Causes: It occurs due to a genetic mutation during cell division, where there is an extra chromosome 21 in either the egg or sperm, leading to 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.

Symptoms:

Intellectual disability: Varies from mild to moderate.

Distinct facial features: Slanted eyes, flat nose, and small ears.

Other health issues: Heart defects, vision problems, hearing loss, and increased risk of certain medical conditions like thyroid problems and leukemia.

Diagnosis: Down syndrome can be detected through prenatal screening or diagnostic tests like amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS).

Management: There is no cure, but early intervention, special education, therapy, and medical care can help improve quality of life and independence.

Down syndrome is the most common genetic birth defect because it occurs in about 1 in 700 births worldwide, making it more prevalent than other chromosomal conditions. Its genetic cause (trisomy 21) leads to a combination of developmental delays and health concerns, but with appropriate care, many individuals with Down syndrome can lead fulfilling lives.

Additional Information 

Cerebral Palsy: A condition caused by brain damage that affects movement, coordination, and muscle tone.
Prematurity: Babies born before 37 weeks, often requiring special care due to underdeveloped organs.
Cleft Palate: A birth defect with a gap in the roof of the mouth, typically requiring surgery to repair.

Rubella

Key Points

• MMR Vaccination:
  • The MMR vaccine is designed to protect against three major viral infections: measles, mumps, and rubella.
  • Rubella, also known as German measles, is a contagious viral infection preventable by the MMR vaccine.
  • Rubella can cause serious birth defects if a woman is infected while pregnant, making vaccination crucial.

Additional Information

• Rheumatic Fever:
  • Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop after a Group A streptococcal infection. It is not related to the MMR vaccine.
• Respiratory Tract Infection:
  • Respiratory tract infections can be caused by various bacteria and viruses, but the MMR vaccine specifically targets measles, mumps, and rubella.
• Rickets:
  • Rickets is a bone condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate. It is unrelated to the viral infections targeted by the MMR vaccine.

The correct answer is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Key PointsFirst Trimester

• Recommendation I: Increase folic acid intake to prevent neural tube defects.
• During the first trimester, folic acid is critical for the development of the baby's neural tube (which becomes the brain and spinal cord).
• A deficiency in folic acid during this time increases the risk of neural tube defects.
• This is why it is highly recommended to increase folic acid intake during the first trimester.

Second Trimester

• Recommendation II: Focus on iron and calcium supplements for fetal growth and maternal stores.
• In the second trimester, the baby is growing rapidly, and maternal stores of iron and calcium need to be supported to prevent deficiencies.
• Iron is vital to prevent anemia and support increased blood volume, while calcium is essential for fetal bone development.

Third Trimester

• Recommendation IV: Ensure sufficient hydration and vitamin D to support overall health.
• In the third trimester, hydration is crucial due to increased amniotic fluid and the body's demands.
• Vitamin D helps with the absorption of calcium for both the mother's and baby's bone health.
• This phase requires extra attention to overall health support, including adequate hydration and vitamin D intake.

D. Throughout Pregnancy

• Recommendation III: Increase protein intake for fetal weight gain and maternal energy.
• Protein intake is important throughout pregnancy for fetal tissue and muscle growth and to provide energy for the mother.
• It is crucial to meet the increased protein needs during the entire pregnancy to support both the growing baby and the mother's energy needs.

The correct answer is  Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key PointsAssertion (A): The Proximodistal principle highlights development from the central part of the body outward.

This is true.

The Proximodistal principle describes how growth and motor development occur from the center of the body (torso) outward to the extremities (arms, hands, fingers).
Reason (R): This principle explains why children gain control over their arms before their fingers.

This is also true.

• According to the Proximodistal principle, children first develop control over their larger, proximal muscles (like those in the arms and shoulders) before the smaller, distal muscles (like those in the fingers).
• This explains why gross motor skills, such as waving arms, develop before fine motor skills, such as grasping objects.

Hence,the assertion accurately describes the Proximodistal principle, and the reason provides a valid explanation by illustrating how this principle manifests in child development. Thus, both statements are true, and the reason supports the assertion.

The correct answer is Eclectic Theoretical orientation.

Key Points

• Eclectic Theoretical Orientation:
  • Eclectic theoretical orientation involves integrating insights and principles from multiple theories to understand complex phenomena.
  • In developmental psychology, this approach allows researchers to draw on various perspectives, such as cognitive, socioemotional, and behavioral theories, to provide a more comprehensive understanding of development.
  • This orientation acknowledges that no single theory can explain all aspects of development, hence the need to combine elements from different theories.

Additional Information

• DBT Theoretical Orientation:
  • DBT (Dialectical Behavior Therapy) is primarily a therapeutic approach used to treat borderline personality disorder and other conditions. It focuses on balancing acceptance and change but is not a developmental theory.
• Ethological Theoretical Orientation:
  • Ethological theory emphasizes the role of biology and evolution in development, focusing on behavior in natural contexts. It is not specifically concerned with integrating multiple domains of development.
• Cognitive Theoretical Orientation:
  • Cognitive theories, such as Piaget's stages of cognitive development, focus on mental processes but do not necessarily integrate socioemotional or other domains of development.

The correct answer is 'Psychoanalytic theory'

Key Points

• Psychoanalytic theory:
  • This theory, primarily associated with Sigmund Freud, emphasizes that human development is largely unconscious and influenced by emotion.
  • Behaviors are seen as surface manifestations, with the true meaning of actions requiring analysis of the symbolic workings of the mind.
  • It places significant importance on early experiences with parents in shaping personality and behavior.

Additional Information

• Cognitive theory:
  • Focuses on how we think and understand the world; emphasizes mental processes like learning, memory, and problem-solving.
• Ecological theory:
  • Proposed by Urie Bronfenbrenner, this theory looks at how a child's environment affects their development, considering multiple levels of influence from immediate surroundings to broader societal factors.
• Evolutionary theory:
  • Emphasizes the role of biological evolution in the development of human behaviors and traits, suggesting that certain characteristics have developed to solve problems related to survival and reproduction.

The correct answer is 'Nature - Nurture issue'

Key Points

• Nature - Nurture issue:
  • The debate centers around whether an individual's development is primarily influenced by genetic inheritance (nature) or by their environment and experiences (nurture).
  • This issue is fundamental in understanding human behavior, psychology, and personality development.
  • It explores how much of who we are is shaped by our DNA and how much by our life experiences and environment.

Additional Information

• Continuity - discontinuity issue:
  • This debate concerns whether development is a smooth, continuous process or a series of distinct stages.
  • It explores how developmental changes unfold but does not directly address the influence of genetics vs. environment.
• Early - Later experience issue:
  • This issue debates the importance of early experiences in childhood versus experiences later in life for personal development.
  • It examines when in a person's life experiences have the most impact but is separate from the nature vs. nurture debate.
• Home - School issue:
  • Focuses on the relative impact of home life and schooling on a child's development.
  • While relevant to the discussion of environmental influences, it is more specific than the broad nature vs. nurture debate.

From the moment the human child is first conceived, to the day the individual dies, they keep changing constantly and developing. 

• Life span development deals with important common developmental stages that human beings pass through: birth, infancy, adolescence, adulthood, old age and finally death. 

 Key PointsLet's understand these stages of development in brief:

Infancy: Infancy is the shortest of all developmental stages. Since the environment changes are drastic, the infant needs to make radical adjustment.

• Infants' adjustment is also an indication or a preview to future development.
• There are several hazards or dangers facing the infant. These hazards are physical and psychological in nature.
• Getting adjusted to the new environmental conditions such as respiratory, digestive and vascular functions themselves become a threat for the infant.

Childhood: It extends from 2 to 12 years and is generally divided as early and late childhood.

• Early childhood can be taken to range from the completion of 2 years to 6 years.
• The skills acquired by the child, speech development and play development, personality development started to develop slowly. It is divided into early childhood and later childhood.
• During the first four or five years, the child gains control over gross movements. Most of the fundamental motor skills like running, catching, can be performed with greater accuracy than these were performed during infancy.
• After five years of age, major development takes place in muscular coordination.

Adolescence literally means 'to grow to maturity'.

• It is an intermediary stage between childhood and adulthood  characteristically possessing qualities of both characters.
• Biological growth & development
• Physical And Psychological Transition i.e. Rapid physical, psychological cognitive growth
• Behaviour change and development
• Appearance-Consciousness
• Attraction Towards the Opposite Sex

Adulthood: Adulthood is the stage where growth is complete and the person assumes various responsibilities. Starts around I 8 years. It extends till middle age which is around 45 years.

• It is the threshold to adulthood.
• There are rapid physical changes taking place including sexual maturity which is attained during adolescence.
• Consequently there are also psychological and social changes. Adolescence is a crucial stage for the person.
• In addition, it usually encounters problems of different kinds.
• Adolescents are very sensitive. 

Therefore, it can be inferred from the above points that the correct sequence of stages of development is Infancy, Childhood, Adolescence, Adulthood

The correct answer is 'A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II'

Key Points

• Prolapsed umbilical cord:
  • Occurs when the umbilical cord precedes the baby through the birth canal.
  • Can be life-threatening as the cord may be squeezed shut, cutting off oxygen to the baby.
• Preclampsia:
  • A condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.
  • Can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if left untreated.
• Cephalopelvic disproportion:
  • Occurs when the infant's head is larger than the mother's pelvis, making it difficult for the baby to pass through the birth canal.
  • Often results in the need for a cesarean delivery.
• Irregular position:
  • Refers to abnormal fetal positions such as shoulder presentation or breech presentation.
  • In shoulder presentation, the baby lies crosswise in the uterus, and in breech presentation, the buttocks appear first.

Additional Information

• Understanding birth complications:
  • Birth complications can arise due to various factors and can significantly impact the health of both the mother and the baby.
  • Proper prenatal care and timely medical intervention are crucial in managing these complications.
• Preventive measures:
  • Regular prenatal check-ups can help in early detection and management of potential birth complications.
  • Maintaining a healthy lifestyle during pregnancy can also reduce the risk of complications.

The correct answer is 'B, A, C, D, E'

Key Points

• Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience:
  • Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience is a visual model that represents the effectiveness of different types of learning experiences on memory retention.
  • The model suggests that people remember more from active participation compared to passive observation.
• Highest to Lowest Percentage of Memory Retention:
  • B. Simulate: Simulation involves active participation and experiential learning, leading to the highest memory retention.
  • A. Design collaborative lessons: Designing and collaborating on lessons involves active engagement and application of knowledge, resulting in high retention.
  • C. Watch a demonstration: Observing a demonstration allows for visual learning, which is more effective than reading or listening but less effective than active participation.
  • D. Watch videos: Watching videos involves passive observation but can still be engaging and memorable.
  • E. Read: Reading is a passive activity and typically results in the lowest memory retention according to Dale's model.

The correct answer is 'Enactive, iconic and symbolic'.

Key Points

• Bruner's Modes of Representation:
  • Jerome Bruner, in 1966, proposed that humans use three modes of representation to understand and interact with the world: enactive, iconic, and symbolic.
  • Enactive: This mode involves representation through action. For instance, a child learns about objects by physically manipulating them.
  • Iconic: This mode involves representation through images and visual means. For example, recognizing a tree through a picture.
  • Symbolic: This mode involves the use of symbols, such as language and mathematics, to represent knowledge abstractly.