Orthogonal Cutting MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Orthogonal Cutting - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jun 21, 2025
Latest Orthogonal Cutting MCQ Objective Questions
Orthogonal Cutting Question 1:
In a parting-off operation, how is the cutting tool fed into the workpiece?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 1 Detailed Solution
Explanation:
Parting-Off Operation
- Parting-off is a machining operation performed on a lathe where a thin cutting tool, known as a parting tool, is used to cut off a portion of the workpiece. This operation is commonly used to separate finished components from the raw material or to create grooves or recesses in the workpiece. The parting tool is fed perpendicular to the axis of the workpiece, slicing through it as the lathe spindle rotates.
- In a parting-off operation, the cutting tool is mounted on the tool post, and the tool post is attached to the cross-slide of the lathe. The cross-slide allows the tool to move in a direction perpendicular to the axis of the workpiece. During the operation, the operator manually rotates the cross-slide screw to feed the parting tool into the workpiece. This manual control ensures precision and allows the operator to adjust the feed rate based on the material type, tool geometry, and cutting conditions.
Why Option 2 is Correct:
1. Mechanism of Cross-Slide Feed: The cross-slide screw is a threaded component connected to the cross-slide of the lathe. When the operator rotates the screw, the cross-slide moves along its dovetail ways, carrying the tool closer to or away from the workpiece. This movement is precisely controlled, which is essential for delicate operations like parting-off.
2. Perpendicular Feed: Parting-off requires the tool to move perpendicular to the workpiece's axis to achieve a clean separation. The cross-slide screw facilitates this perpendicular feed, making it the most appropriate choice for the operation.
3. Manual Control: Unlike automated feeds, manual control allows the operator to feel the resistance encountered during cutting. This tactile feedback helps the operator avoid excessive tool pressure, which can lead to tool breakage or deformation of the workpiece.
4. Practical Application: In most lathe operations, especially in small workshops or for custom jobs, manual control of the cross-slide is preferred for parting-off. It provides the flexibility to accommodate variations in material properties and tool wear.
Orthogonal Cutting Question 2:
Data of an orthogonal cutting is:
Chip thickness ratio = 0.4
Rake angle = 20°
What will be the shear plane angle?
[given, , ]
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 2 Detailed Solution
Concept:
The shear plane angle \( \phi \) in orthogonal cutting is calculated using:
\( \tan \phi = \frac{r \cos \alpha}{1 - r \sin \alpha} \)
Given:
Chip thickness ratio \( r = 0.4 \), Rake angle \( \alpha = 20^\circ \)
\( \cos(20^\circ) = 0.94 \), \( \sin(20^\circ) = 0.34 \)
Calculation:
\( \tan \phi = \frac{0.4 \cdot 0.94}{1 - 0.4 \cdot 0.34} = \frac{0.376}{0.864} \approx 0.435 \)
\( \phi = \tan^{-1}(0.435) \)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 3:
The specific metal cutting energy is expressed as
where 'α' is rake angle, 'β' is friction angle, 'φ' is shear angle and 'τ' shear stress
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 3 Detailed Solution
Explanation:
\({\rm{Shear\;stress\;}}\left( \tau \right) = \frac{{{F_s}}}{{b{t_1}}}\sin \phi \)
[where Fs = shear force]
\( ⇒ {F_s} = \frac{{{F_c}\cos \left( {\phi + \beta - \alpha } \right)}}{{\cos \left( {\beta - \alpha } \right)}}\)
[From Merchant’s circle diagram]
\(\therefore \tau = \frac{{{F_c}\sin \phi \cos \left( {\phi + \beta - \alpha } \right)}}{{b{t_1}\cos \left( {\beta - \alpha } \right)}}\)
Now,
\(\frac{{{F_c}}}{{b{t_1}}} = {\rm{\;specific\;cutting\;energy\;}}\left( {\rm{U}} \right)\)
\(\therefore \tau = \frac{{U\sin \phi \cos \left( {\phi + \beta - \alpha } \right)}}{{\cos \left( {\beta - \alpha } \right)}}\)
⇒ \(U = \frac{{\tau\cos \left( {\beta - \alpha } \right)}}{{sin \phi \cos \left( {\phi + \beta - \alpha } \right)}}\)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 4:
A 150 mm long, 12.5 mm diameter stainless steel rod is being reduced to a diameter of 12 mm by turning operation. The lathe spindle rotates at N = 400 rpm. Calculate the cutting speed.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 4 Detailed Solution
Concept:
Cutting speed is given by
V = πDN
Where V = cutting speed, D = diameter, N = speed in RPM
Calculation:
Given:
N = 400 rpm, D = 12.5 mm = 0.0125 m
V = πDN
V = π × 0.0125 × 400
V = 15.7 m/min
Orthogonal Cutting Question 5:
Suppose, in an orthogonal cutting operation, the cutting force and the thrust force are Fc = 1500 N and Ft = 1170 N. Assuming rake angle, α = 0°, calculate the normal force to the friction.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 5 Detailed Solution
Explanation:
- The above diagram is called the "Merchant Circle Diagram", which represents the inter-relationship of the different force components in continuous chip formation under orthogonal cutting.
- The term (Fs) represents the "Shear force" which is mainly responsible for the chip separation from the parent body by shearing and is used to determine the yield strength of the work material. This shear force acts along the shear angle (ϕ).
- Feed Force, F = FCsin α + FTcos α
- Normal Force, N = FCcos α - FTsin α
- Where, Fc = Cutting Force, α = Rake Angle.
From Merchant circle:
- It can be seen that when the rake angle is 0o, friction force becomes parallel to thrust force and normal force becomes parallel to cutting force.
- Hence friction force, normal force, thrust force, and cutting force forms a rectangle inscribed in the Merchant circle.
- Therefore, at rake angle = 0o, friction force = thrust force and normal force = cutting force.
- Mathematically also, when you put α = 0o, you will get N = Fc and FT = F.
Calculation:
Given:
Fc = 1500 N and Ft = 1170 N, α = 0°
α = 0o, you will get N = Fc
N = 1500 N
Top Orthogonal Cutting MCQ Objective Questions
The feed rate of single point cutting tool is 3 mm/revolution and the workpiece is rotating at 600 r.p.m. Determine the total machining time to turn the cylindrical surface of length 300 mm of the workpiece.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Time for machining \(= \frac{L}{{f\times N}}\)
where L is job length (mm), f is feed (mm/rev), N is job speed (rpm)
Calculation:
Given:
f = 3 mm/rev, N = 600 rpm, L = 300 mm
Time for machining \(= \frac{L}{{f.N}} = \frac{ 300}{3×600} \) = 0.1666 minutes = 0.1666 × 60 = 10 sec
The total machining time to turn the cylindrical surface is 10 sec.
An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out under the following conditions : Cutting Speed = 2 m/sec, Depth of cut = 0.5 mm, Chip thickness = 0.6 mm. What is the chip velocity?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
We know that,
\(r = \frac{t}{{{t_c}}} = \frac{{{V_c}}}{V}\)
r = chip thickness ratio, t = chip thickness before cutting/(uncut chip thickness) (mm), tc = chip thickness after cutting (mm), V = cutting speed (m/s), Vc = chip velocity (m/s)
Calculation:
Given:
V = 2 m/s, Depth of cut = 0.5 mm
In orthogonal cutting,
t = f(feed)
and b(width) = d(depth of cut)
but in the question, nothing is mentioned about the uncut chip thickness and feed so we have taken the uncut chip thickness equal to the depth of cut. (Official Question of UPPSC AE)
tc = 0.6 mm
\(\frac{t}{{{t_c}}} = \frac{{{V_c}}}{V}\)
\(\frac{{0.5}}{{0.6}} = \frac{{{V_c}}}{2} \Rightarrow {V_c} = 1.66\;m/s\)
Which pair of following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting using a single-point cutting tool ?
P. Reduction in friction angle increases cutting force
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases cutting force
R. Reduction in friction angle increases chip thickness
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases chip thickness
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:
In orthogonal cutting,
(i) Reduction in friction angle decreases the cutting force
(ii) Reduction in friction angle decreases chip thickness
According to Merchant's theory,
\(ϕ = \frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{4} + \frac{{\rm{α }}}{2} - \frac{{\rm{β }}}{2}\) where, ϕ = shear angle, α = rake angle, β = friction angle
As β decreases. ϕ increases because α is constant.
- If all other factors remain the same, a higher shear angle results in a smaller shear plane area. Since the shear strength is applied across this area, the shear force required to form the chip will decrease when the shear plane area is decreased.
Now \(\frac{t}{{{t_c}}} = \frac{{sinϕ }}{{\cos \left( {ϕ - α } \right)}}\)
\({t_c} = \frac{{\cos \left( {ϕ - α } \right)}}{{sinϕ }} \times t\)
- As ϕ increases, cos (ϕ -α) will decrease and Sinϕ will increase. This chip thickness will decrease.
- Hence from the above options Q and S, both are correct..
The chip thickness ratio 'r' in Orthogonal metal cutting operation is always:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:
Chip thickness ratio / Cutting ratio (r):
It is the ratio of chip thickness before cut (t1) to the chip thickness after cut (t2).
\(r=\frac{Chip\;thickness\;before\;cut\;(t_1)}{Chip\;thickness\;after\;cut\;(t_2)}\Rightarrow \frac{uncut\;chip\;thickness}{chip\;thickness}\)
chip thickness after the cut (t2) is always greater than the chip thickness before the cut (t1), ∴ r is always < 1, i.e. the uncut chip thickness value is less than the chip thickness value.
Assuming volume to be constant:
t1b1L1 = t2b2L2
\(\frac{t_1}{t_2}=\frac{L_2}{L_1}\;\;\;\;(\because b_1=b_2)\)
as t2 > t1, ∴ L2 < L1 i.e. length after cut is less than the length before the cut.
Assuming discharge to be constant:
t1b1V = t2b2Vc
\(\frac{t_1}{t_2}=\frac{V_c}{V}\;\;\;\;(\because b_1=b_2)\)
as t2 > t1, ∴ V > Vc i.e. cutting velocity is greater than the chip velocity.
At what rpm should a lathe be run to give a cutting speed of 20 m/min when turning a rod of diameter 40 mm?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Cutting speed is given by
V = πDN
Where V = cutting speed, D = diameter, N = speed in RPM
Calculation:
Given:
V = 20 m/min , D = 40 mm = 0.04 m
V = πDN
20 = π × 0.04 × N
N = 160 rpm
A 150 mm long, 12.5 mm diameter stainless steel rod is being reduced to a diameter of 12 mm by turning operation. The lathe spindle rotates at N = 400 rpm. Calculate the cutting speed.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Cutting speed is given by
V = πDN
Where V = cutting speed, D = diameter, N = speed in RPM
Calculation:
Given:
N = 400 rpm, D = 12.5 mm = 0.0125 m
V = πDN
V = π × 0.0125 × 400
V = 15.7 m/min
During pure orthogonal turning operation of a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found that the thickness of the chip produced is 0.5 mm. The feed given to the zero degree rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear strain produced during the operation is _______
Answer (Detailed Solution Below) 2.8 - 3.0
Orthogonal Cutting Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
In orthogonal turning operation, \({\rm{t}} = {\rm{f\;sinλ }}\)
But λ = 90° where λ = principle cutting edge angle
∴ t = f where, t = thickness, f = feed
Cutting shear strain \(\left( {\rm{\gamma }} \right) = \cot \left( \phi \right) + \tan \left( {\phi - {\rm{\alpha }}} \right)\)...........(1)
\(\tan \left( \phi \right) = \frac{{{\rm{r}}.{\rm{cos\alpha }}}}{{1 - {\rm{r}}.{\rm{sin\alpha }}}}{\rm{\;}}\)..............(2)
Where, \({\rm{\alpha }} = {\rm{rake\;angle}},{\rm{\;}}\phi = {\rm{shear\;angle}}\), r = chip thickness ratio
\({\rm{r}} = \frac{{\rm{t}}}{{{{\rm{t}}_{\rm{c}}}{\rm{\;}}}}\)
Given:
f = t = 0.2 mm, tc =0.5 mm, α = 0, \({\rm{r}} = \frac{{0.2}}{{0.5}} = 0.4{\rm{\;}}\)
Calculation:
Using the values of chip thickness ratio and rake angle in (2) we get shear angle.
\(\phi = {\tan ^{ - 1}}0.4\)
\(\phi = 21.801^\circ \)
Using the above-obtained shear angle in (1) we get shear strain.
\(∴ {\rm{\gamma }} = \cot \left( {21.801} \right) + \tan \left( {21.801 - 0} \right)\)
\({\rm{\;\gamma }} = {\rm{\;}}2.90\)
The cutting speed of a milling cutter is 16.5 m/min. Find the diameter of cutter if cutter rpm is 250. \((π = \frac{22}{7})\)
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Cutting speed of the milling tool is given by
\(V = π DN\)
where V = Cutter speed in m/min, D = Diameter of cutter in meter, N = rpm
Calculation:
Given:
V = 16.5 m/min, N = 250 rpm, \(π = \frac{22}{7}\)
\(16.5 = \frac{22\times D\times 250}{7}\)
\(D=\frac{16.5\times 7}{22\times250 }\)
D = 0.021 m
D = 21 mm.
The diameter of the cutter will be 21 mm.
In orthogonal metal cutting, cutting speed is 2 m/s and depth of cut is 0.5 mm. If chip thickness is 0.75 mm, the chip velocity in m/s will be:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Chip thickness ratio / Cutting ratio (r):
It is the ratio of chip thickness before cut (t1) to the chip thickness after cut (t2).
\(r=\frac{Chip\;thickness\;before\;cut\;(t_1)}{Chip\;thickness\;after\;cut\;(t_2)}\Rightarrow \frac{uncut\;chip\;thickness}{chip\;thickness}\)
chip thickness after the cut (t2) is always greater than the chip thickness before the cut (t1), ∴ r is always < 1, i.e. the uncut chip thickness value is less than the chip thickness value.
Assuming discharge to be constant:
t1b1V = t2b2Vc
\(\frac{t_1}{t_2}=\frac{V_c}{V}\;\;\;\;(\because b_1=b_2)\)
as t2 > t1, ∴ V > Vc i.e. cutting velocity is greater than the chip velocity.
[NOTE: In an orthogonal metal cutting depth of cut = uncut chip thickness]
Calculation:
Given:
Vc = 2 m/s, depth of cut = t1 = 0.5 mm, t2 = 0.75 mm.
\(\frac{t_1}{t_2}=\frac{V_c}{V}\;\;\;\;(\because b_1=b_2)\)
\(\frac{0.5}{0.75}=\frac{V_c}{2}\)
∴ Vc = 1.33 m/s
In an orthogonal turning process the chip thickness = 0.32 mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev. Then the chip reduction coefficient will be
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Orthogonal Cutting Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Chip reduction coefficient is given as,
\(\xi = \frac{t_c}{f}\)
The chip thickness (\(t_c\)) is 0.32 mm, and the feed (\(f\)) is 0.2 mm/rev.
Calculation:
Given:
Chip thickness, \(t_c = 0.32 \text{ mm}\)
Feed, \(f = 0.2 \text{ mm/rev}\)
The chip reduction coefficient is,
\(\xi = \frac{0.32 \text{ mm}}{0.2 \text{ mm/rev}}\)
Perform the division,
\(\xi = \frac{0.32}{0.2} = 1.6\)
The chip reduction coefficient (\(\xi\)) is 1.6.