Evolution and Behavior MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Evolution and Behavior - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is A and B

Concept:

• Reproductive success in animals, including bird species, refers to the ability to produce offspring that survive to reproductive age. Variance in reproductive success between males and females is often influenced by parental care strategies, mating systems, and resource allocation.
• Parental care plays a crucial role in shaping reproductive dynamics. Depending on whether males, females, or both parents provide care, the variance in reproductive success can differ significantly between sexes.
• When one sex invests more heavily in parental care, the other sex often engages more in competition for mates, leading to higher variance in reproductive success for the competing sex.

Important Points

• Polygyny - refers to a mating system in which males mate with multiple females.
• Polyandry - refers to a mating system in which females mate with multiple males.
• Monogamy - refers to a mating system where individuals form long-term pair bonds with a single mate.

Male-Biased Mating System (Vm > Vf) -

• When the variance in male mating success is greater than the variance in female mating success, it suggests a male-biased mating system.
• This often occurs in species with polygynous mating systems, where a few dominant males have access to multiple females, leading to high variation in male reproductive success.
• This can be driven by competition among males for access to mates.

Female-Biased Mating System (Vf > Vm) -

• When the variance in female mating success is greater than the variance in male mating success, it indicates a female-biased mating system.
• This is commonly observed in species with polyandrous mating systems, where females mate with multiple males.
• Some females have a higher probability of mating success and can choose from a pool of available mates.

Explanation:

• Statement A: "If females provide more parental care than males, the variance in male reproductive success is significantly greater than that of females."
  • This statement is correct. In species where females invest heavily in parental care, males often compete more intensely for mating opportunities. This leads to greater variance in male reproductive success, as some males may mate with multiple females while others fail to mate at all.
• Statement B: "Where only males provide parental care, the variance in female reproductive success is significantly higher than that of males."
  • This statement is correct. In species where males provide all parental care, females compete for access to males willing to care for offspring. This results in higher variance in female reproductive success, as some females may secure mates and reproduce successfully while others do not.
• Statement C: "In the case of biparental care, the variance in male reproductive success is significantly greater than that of females."
  • This statement is incorrect. In species with biparental care, both males and females invest significantly in offspring, leading to more balanced reproductive success between sexes. Variance in reproductive success typically does not skew heavily toward one sex.
• Statement D: "In the case of biparental care, the variance in female reproductive success is significantly greater than that of males."
  • This statement is also incorrect. Similar to Statement C, biparental care results in more equal investment and competition between sexes, reducing extreme variance in reproductive success for either sex.

The correct answer is A shows negative selection, B shows positive selection.

Concept:

In evolutionary biology, genetic mutations can be categorized into synonymous and non-synonymous mutations:

• Synonymous mutations: These are mutations in the DNA sequence that do not result in a change in the amino acid sequence of the protein. They are often considered neutral as they do not affect protein function.
• Non-synonymous mutations: These are mutations that lead to a change in the amino acid sequence of the protein, potentially altering its function. These mutations can be advantageous, deleterious, or neutral depending on the selective pressures acting on them.

The selection pressures acting on a population can be classified as:

• Negative selection: Also known as purifying selection, it removes deleterious mutations, reducing the prevalence of non-synonymous mutations compared to synonymous ones.
• Positive selection: This favors advantageous mutations, increasing the prevalence of non-synonymous mutations in the population.
• Neutral selection: Mutations (both synonymous and non-synonymous) accumulate randomly without any selective advantage or disadvantage.

Explanation:

• Phylogeny A: In Phylogeny A, the distribution of mutations suggests negative selection. Negative selection is characterized by a higher proportion of synonymous mutations (solid black circles) compared to non-synonymous mutations (different symbols). This indicates that deleterious non-synonymous mutations are being removed from the population, consistent with purifying selection.
• Phylogeny B: In Phylogeny B, the pattern indicates positive selection. Positive selection is evidenced by a higher prevalence of non-synonymous mutations, suggesting that these mutations are advantageous and being favored in the population.

The correct answer is A, B, and D

Concept:

• Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that refers to random changes in allele frequencies within a population over time. It occurs independently of natural selection and is particularly pronounced in small populations.
• Key characteristics of genetic drift:
  • It is a random process, meaning it is not influenced by the fitness or advantage of alleles.
  • It can lead to the fixation of certain alleles (allele frequency reaching 100%) purely by chance, while others are lost.
  • Genetic drift reduces genetic diversity over time, as some alleles are eliminated from the population.
  • The effects of genetic drift are more significant in small populations due to the higher likelihood of random events altering allele frequencies drastically.

Explanation:

• Statement A: "Fixation of an allele is purely by chance, while other alleles are lost."
  • This is correct. Genetic drift is a random process that can lead to the fixation of certain alleles purely by chance, while other alleles disappear from the gene pool.
• Statement B: "Genetic drift can lead to the loss of certain alleles over time, reducing genetic diversity within the population."
  • This is correct. Genetic drift reduces genetic variation because some alleles are lost completely due to random events, especially in small populations.
• Statement C: "Changes in allele frequencies are due to positive selection."
  • This is incorrect. Positive selection refers to the process where advantageous alleles increase in frequency due to their beneficial effects on the organism’s fitness, which is not a random process. Genetic drift, on the other hand, is entirely random and independent of fitness.
• Statement D: "There is a pronounced effect in small populations, where random events can drastically alter allele frequencies."
  • This is correct. Genetic drift has a much stronger effect in small populations, where random changes in allele frequencies can have a more significant impact on the overall gene pool.

Concept:

• Endosymbiosis is a key evolutionary process in which one organism lives inside another, leading to the development of organelles like plastids and mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.
• Plastids, the organelles responsible for photosynthesis in algae and plants, have a complex evolutionary history involving primary, secondary, and tertiary endosymbiosis events. The evolution and diversification of plastids in algal lineages are closely linked to these endosymbiotic processes, which were pivotal in the development of diverse photosynthetic organisms.

Explanation:

Primary Endosymbiosis:

• In primary endosymbiosis, a eukaryotic host cell engulfed a cyanobacterium, leading to the formation of primary plastids.
• This process gave rise to the three primary algal lineages: red algae (Rhodophyta), green algae (Chlorophyta), and glaucophytes.

Secondary Endosymbiosis:

• Secondary endosymbiosis occurred when a eukaryotic host cell engulfed another eukaryotic cell containing primary plastids (e.g., a red or green alga).
• This event led to the formation of complex plastids in diverse algal groups, such as diatoms, dinoflagellates, and brown algae (Stramenopiles).

Tertiary Endosymbiosis:

• In some cases, tertiary endosymbiosis occurred when a eukaryotic cell with secondary plastids was engulfed by another eukaryotic host, further diversifying plastid lineages.
• This process is observed in some dinoflagellates, which acquired plastids from other algal groups.
• Option 2 correctly outlines the sequence of events: primary plastids originated from a cyanobacterium through primary endosymbiosis, while secondary and tertiary endosymbiosis involving red and green algae resulted in plastids in diverse algal groups like diatoms and dinoflagellates.

Fig: Origins of plastids via A: primary, B: secondary, and C: tertiary endosymbiosis. (Source)

Gene transfer from the endosymbiont to the host nucleus is shown with the arrows and the colored chromosomes. The mitochondrion has been omitted from these figures. The remnant algal nucleus (nucleomorph) in secondary and tertiary endosymbioses is shown. This genome has been lost in all algae but the cryptophytes (member of the chromalveolates) and chlorarachniophytes (marked with asterisks).

Other Options:

• Option 1: This option incorrectly states that primary plastids originated from a eukaryotic host engulfing a red algal ancestor. In reality, primary plastids originated from a cyanobacterium, not a red alga.
• Option 3: This option suggests that all algal lineages acquired plastids through multiple independent primary endosymbiosis events. This is incorrect, as primary endosymbiosis occurred once, leading to the three primary algal lineages (red algae, green algae, and glaucophytes).
• Option 4:Primary plastids in green algae originated from primary endosymbiosis with a cyanobacterium. It also incorrectly states that tertiary endosymbiosis involving diatoms led to the evolution of plastids in red algae, which is not supported by scientific evidence.
   

The correct answer is Diverging populations developed differences in diet. However, it did not lead to reproductive isolation.

Explanation:

• Speciation is the evolutionary process by which populations evolve to become distinct species.
• It often involves genetic divergence and reproductive isolation, meaning that two populations can no longer interbreed to produce viable offspring.
• In sympatric speciation, populations living in the same geographic area diverge into different species, often due to ecological, behavioral, or temporal isolation.
• In the context of the two ladybird beetle species, ecological specialization (different diets) and temporal differentiation in foraging activities could have driven speciation.

Option 1: Populations exploited different diets in the rainforests.

• This is correct. When populations exploit different diets, they adapt to different ecological niches, which can lead to genetic divergence over time. This ecological differentiation is a crucial driver of sympatric speciation in many species.

Option 2: Over time, natural selection favored traits that allowed the consumption of distinct diets.

• This is correct. Natural selection plays a key role in sympatric speciation by favoring traits that allow populations to specialize in different ecological roles (e.g., consuming distinct diets). This process reduces competition and promotes divergence between populations.

Option 3: Diverging populations developed differences in diet. However, it did not lead to reproductive isolation.

• This is incorrect because Speciation requires reproductive isolation, either prezygotic (e.g., behavioral or temporal barriers) or postzygotic (e.g., hybrid inviability or sterility). If differences in diet do not lead to reproductive isolation, the populations cannot be considered distinct species, as they can still interbreed and exchange genetic material.

Option 4: Temporal differentiation in their foraging activity led to their distinct diets.

• This is correct. Temporal differentiation (e.g., foraging at different times of the day) can lead to reduced interaction between populations, decreasing gene flow. Such ecological and behavioral changes are significant drivers of sympatric speciation.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e.64

Concept:

• Hardy Weinberg's principle relates genotypic frequency and allelic frequency in a population that is mating randomly. 
• Hardy Weinberg equilibrium states that in the absence of external disruption, genotypic frequencies in a population remain stable across generations.
• Hardy Weinberg equation is given by 
• \(p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 \)
• Here, the p and q represent the frequency of the dominant allele and recessive allele, and \(p^2, 2pq\) and \(q^2\)represent the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive.
• Random mating, infinite population size,  no mutation, no gene flow, and no selection are assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Explanation:

• Frequency of homozygous recessive phenotype \(q^2 = 0.04 \)
• Then the frequency of recessive allele = q=0.2
• According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, \(p+q=1\)
• Now, the frequency of the dominant allele (p) is:

  \(\begin {equation} \begin {split} p &= 1-q \\&= 1-0.2 \\&= 0.8\\ \end {split} \end {equation}\)

• Frequency of homozygous dominant phenotype \(=p^2\)
• Therefore, the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals in the population is:

\(\begin{equation} \begin {split} p^2 &= 0.8 \times 0.8 \\ p^2 &= 0.64 \end {split} \end {equation} \)

• The percentage of individuals homozygous for the dominant allele is 64%.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Alveolates and amoeba belong to same super group.

Concept:

• Eukaryotes are divided into 5-6 supergroups based on the phylogenomic analysis where each subgroup contains organisms for which there is enough evidence that they formed a monophyletic group. 
• Five to six super-groups were originally proposed depending on the fact whether Opisthokonta and Amoebozoa subgroups were united in a single large group called Unikonta. 

Supergroups - 

1. Opisthokonta - 
   • It includes fungi, animals and several protist lineages which are either closely related to fungi or animals.
   • Flagellated cell is the one most common characteristics of opisthokonts.
   • Opisthokonts are split into two major groups: Holomycota (kingdom Fungi) and Holozoa (kingdom Animalia).
2. Amoebozoa - 
   • It includes amoeboid life forms with lobose pseudopodia, some filose amoebae, various slime-mould, and some flagellates.
   • Pseudopodia is the common characteristic that extends like tubes or flat lobes.
   • Organisms of this super-group can be free-living or parasites. 
3. Excavata - 
   • It was originally proposed by Simpson and Patterson in 1999 and later by Thomas Cavalier-Smith in 2002 as a formal taxon.
   • Members of this super-group have distinctive morphology found in the flagellated protists like feeding groove form, associated cytoskeleton, etc. 
   • This group includes heterotrophic predators, parasites and photosynthetic species.
   • Its sub-groups are - diplomonads, parabasalids and euglenozoans.
4. Archaeplastidia - 
   • It includes green algae and land plants, red algae and glaucophyte algae. 
   • The characteristic feature of members of this supergroup is the presence of chloroplast.
   • The main evidence in the favour of Archaeplastidia forming a monophyletic group comes from genetic studies which indicate a single origin of plastids i.e., endosymbiotic theory of plastid origin.  
5. Chromalveolata - 
   • The ancestors of supergroup chromalveolata are believed to have resulted from the second endosymbiotic event. 
   • The ancestors of Chromalveolata have engulfed a photosynthetic red algae cell, which itself had evolved chloroplast from the endosymbiotic relationship with photosynthetic prokaryotes. 
   • Its sub-group includes alveolates and stramenopiles. 
6. Rhizaria - 
   • It is the most recently added supergroup.
   • The characteristic feature of members of Rhizaria is the presence of needle-like pseudopodia. 
   • Its sub-group includes Forams and Radiolarians.

Explanation:

Option 1: Fungi and animals are more closely related to each other than either group is to plants. 

• Fungi and animals are classified under the same supergroup Opisthokonta. 
• While land plants are classified under the supergroup Archeaplastid.
• So, fungi and animals are more closely related to one another than plants.
• Hence, this is a true statement.

Option 2: Amoebozoa and opisthokonts are unikonts.

• Amoebozoa and Opisthokonts are grouped under one monophyletic group called unikonts. 
• Unikonts include eukaryotic cells with a single flagellum, at least ancestrally. 
• Some research suggests that a unikont was the ancestor of Opisthokonts and Amoebozoa while a bikont was an ancestor of other eukaryotic lineages i.e., Archaeplastida, Excavata, Rhizaria, and chromalveolata.
• Hence, this is a true statement.

Option 3: Land plants and green algae belong to Archaeplastida.

• Archarplastidia includes green algae and land plants, red algae, and glaucophyte algae.
• Hence, this is a true statement.

Option 4: Alveolates and Amoeba belong to same super group. 

• Alveolates belong to the supergroup Chromalveolata while Amoeba belongs to the supergroup Amoebozoa.
• Hence, this is a false statement. 

Conclusion:-Hence, the correct answer is Option 4. 

The correct answer is A,B and C

Explanation:

Phylogenetic trees are graphical representations that depict the evolutionary relationships among various biological species or entities based on similarities and differences in their physical and/or genetic characteristics. 

1. A. Relatedness among different populations, species, or genera: This statement is correct. Phylogenetic trees illustrate the relatedness or evolutionary relationships among different groups. This is one of the primary purposes of phylogenetic analysis.
2. B. Similarity in characters among different populations, species, or genera: This statement is correct. While similarities in characters (morphological, genetic, etc.) are used to construct phylogenetic trees, the trees themselves primarily represent evolutionary relationships and relatedness rather than just similarity.
3. C. Common ancestry among different populations, species, or genera: This statement is correct. Phylogenetic trees are used to infer common ancestry. By examining the branching patterns, one can determine the most recent common ancestors of the groups being studied.
4. D. Functional significance of traits in populations, species, or genera: This statement is incorrect. While phylogenetic trees can provide some insights into evolutionary processes that might affect functional traits, they are not primarily used to assess the functional significance of traits. Functional significance is more directly examined through other methods, such as comparative physiology or ecology.

Conclusion
Based on the analysis, the correct statements about the utility of phylogenetic trees are: A and C

The correct answer is Triassic.

Explanation:

The Triassic period (around 252 to 201 million years ago) is known for several important evolutionary and geological events:

1. Marine Diversity: After the Permian-Triassic extinction event (the largest mass extinction in Earth's history), the early Triassic period saw a gradual recovery and increase in marine diversity. New groups of marine reptiles, like ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs, appeared during this time.

2. Dominance of Gymnosperms: Gymnosperms, such as cycads and conifers, became the dominant plant group during the Triassic. These plants thrived in the drier climates that characterized much of the period.

3. Diversification of Synapsids: Synapsids (including ancestors of mammals) diversified during the Triassic period. The first mammal-like forms (known as therapsids) evolved during this time, laying the foundation for the later evolution of true mammals.

4. Emergence of Dinosaurs: The Triassic also saw the rise of archosaurs, a group that includes dinosaurs. The earliest known dinosaurs, such as Eoraptor and Herrerasaurus, appeared in the late Triassic.

Why the other periods are incorrect:

• Cretaceous: The Cretaceous (145 to 66 million years ago) saw the diversification of flowering plants and the dominance of dinosaurs, but it came after the Triassic.
• Jurassic: The Jurassic (201 to 145 million years ago) is known for the flourishing of dinosaurs and conifers, but the emergence of these forms occurred earlier in the Triassic.
• Carboniferous: The Carboniferous (359 to 299 million years ago) is known for vast swampy forests and the evolution of amphibians and early reptiles, but the events mentioned (marine diversity, synapsids, dinosaurs) occurred later in the Triassic.

Thus, the Triassic period is when these key evolutionary events occurred.

The correct answer is Indohyus.

Explanation:

Indohyus is an extinct genus of a small deer-like, herbivorous animal from the family Raoellidae, which lived about 48 million years ago. In 2007, scientists discovered fossils of Indohyus in the Kashmir region of India, and these fossils provided critical evidence linking it to cetaceans (the group that includes modern whales, dolphins, and porpoises).

Key evidence suggesting that Indohyus was a close terrestrial ancestor of whales includes:

• Bone structure: It had dense bones, similar to those seen in modern aquatic animals that spend a lot of time in water, suggesting it was semi-aquatic.
• Ear structure: The structure of the ear bones in Indohyus resembled that of modern whales, indicating an evolutionary relationship.
• Lifestyle: It is believed to have waded in water and perhaps fed on aquatic plants, which shows an adaptation to aquatic environments, a key transition towards full aquatic life seen in modern whales.

This discovery was significant because it helped scientists understand the evolutionary shift from land-dwelling mammals to fully aquatic cetaceans.

The other options you mentioned are unrelated to the ancestry of whales:

• Jainosaurus: A genus of titanosaurs, a type of herbivorous dinosaur.
• Rajasaurus: A carnivorous dinosaur from India.
• Indosuchus: A genus of theropod dinosaurs, also from India.

Thus, the correct fossil that is considered a close ancestor of whales is Indohyus.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e.A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

Concept:  

• A cell or an organism's behavioural response to outside stimuli is called taxis.
• It is different from kinesis which is a behavioural reaction that results in the movement of organisms in response to an external stimulus.  
• In the case of kinesis, the movement is random or not directionally oriented, whereas in the case of taxis the movement is directionally oriented.
• The movement could be favourable or unfavourable.
• When an organism or cell is travelling toward the source of stimulus, this is referred to as a positive taxis (attraction).
• When a cell or an organism is travelling away from the source of stimulation, this is referred to as a negative taxis (repulsion).
• Taxis also differ from tropism, an automatic, either positive or negative, orienting response to a stimulus source.
• Different types of taxis movement are involved. 

Important Points

• Menotaxis -
  • It is a movement where the organism is maintaining a constant angle to a stimulus.
  • Silk moth flies moving in the direction perpendicular to the wind (stimuli) in order to locate the scent trial is an example of Menotaxis. 
• Magnetotaxis - 
  • ​It is the passive orientation and active movement of organisms in the response to the magnetic field.
  • The movement of bacteria in the response to the magnetic field and burrowing is an example of magnetotaxis.
• Mnemotaxis -
  • It is also known as 'memory response', that is navigation with the use of landmarks.
  • The girl using landmarks to travel to her school is an example of Mnemotaxis. 
• Klinotaxis -
  • It is the wavering side-by-side motion of a part of the body(head) or all of the body, as the organism is moving in the direction of the stimulus.
  • The movement of planaria towards the higher concentration of food by comparing the stimuli is an example of klinotaxis.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. D-C-B-A

Concept:

• The geological time scale is a chronological sequence of evolutionary and geological events spanning the physical formation and development of the Earth.
• In essence, the geological time scale is the Earth's history that is been recorded and represented in the rock strata of the Earth.
• The geological time scale is divided into descending order of duration- eon, era, period, epoch and age.
• The name of division is mainly based on the fossil evidences and principle of carbon dating and most of the boundaries correspond with the origination of extinction of particular kinds of fossils.

Explanation:

• Cambrian period extended from 541 million to 485.4 million years ago.
• Jurassic period extended from 199.6 million to 145.5 million years ago.
• Cretaceous period extended from 145.5 million years to 66 million years ago.
• Quaternary period extended from 2.58 million years to today.

So, the correct order from earlier to recent is Cambrian - Jurassic - Cretaceous - Quaternary. 

Hence, the correct answer is D - C - B - A.​​

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e.Living fossils are organisms that have remained unchanged for millions of years. 

Concept:

• An organism that has stayed largely the same over millions of years with no or few close surviving relatives is considered as a living fossil.
•  The phrase "living fossil" was first used by English biologist Charles Darwin in 1859 to describe a species or group of animals that have altered very little over time as to offer insight into older, now-extinct forms of life.
• Charles Darwin was of the opinion that these organisms are still evolving and these species have adapted to their environmental controls, thereby reaching a peak of competence in environments which leads to the constant strengthening of certain physical characteristics.
• Thus these physical characteristics are still prevalent even after millions of years. 
• Example of living fossils :
  • Unicellular - Cyanobacteria, Amoeba and Protozoa
  • Multicellular - Coelacanth,  Goblin shark, Opossum, Lamprey and Platypus

Explanation:

• Option 1: Living fossils are impressions of extant organisms in old rocks.
  • ​Impression is the 2-D imprint of an organism and it does not contain any organic material.
  • It is a clue left as to the activity performed by the organism. 
  • Some examples of impressions are the footprints, remains of tunnels fossilized excreta of organisms, etc.
  • Hence, this is an incorrect option.
• Option 2: Living fossils show high morphological divergence from fossil records.
  • ​Living fossils closely resemble their fossilized relatives, so they do not show any morphological divergence.
  • This is an incorrect option.
• Option 3: Living fossils are always an evolutionary link between two classes of organisms.
  • ​Connecting link is the organism are the evolutionary link between two organisms as they share characteristics from both classes.
  • Hence, this is an incorrect option.
• Option 4: Living fossils are organisms that have remained unchanged for millions of years. 
  • Living fossils are organisms that have existed for millions of years and they have still remained mostly unchanged.
  • For example, Horseshoe crab is a living fossil as it has remained unchanged for 445 million years. 
  • Even today horseshoe crabs are living and we also find fossils of some species of horseshoe crab some 445 million years ago. 
  • Hence, this is the correct option.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is Option 3

Explanation:

Artiodactyls are a group of even-toed ungulates, which include animals like pigs, hippos, camels, and cows. Molecular and genetic studies have shown that whales (cetaceans) are most closely related to a subgroup of artiodactyls, particularly hippos.

• Tree 1: Shows whales sharing a recent ancestor with camels and horses. This is incorrect because whales are not most closely related to camels or horses.
• Tree 2: Shows whales sharing a common ancestor with pigs and horses, while hippos are distantly related. This is also incorrect because molecular data place whales closer to hippos than to pigs or horses.
• Tree 3: Shows whales sharing a most recent common ancestor with hippos, with both whales and hippos branching off from a common ancestor they share with pigs. This is the correct representation, as it aligns with the molecular evidence.
• Tree 4: Shows whales branching off from a common ancestor shared with pigs, hippos, and camels. While this includes relevant species, it does not accurately reflect the specific close relationship between whales and hippos.

The correct answer is Genotype frequencies: 0.64 WW 0.32 Ww and 0.04 Ww Allele Frequencies W-0.8 and w-0.2

Explanation:
The total population size is given as 500 individuals.

Given genotypes:

• WW: 320 individuals
• Ww: 160 individuals
• ww: 20 individuals

Genotype frequency is calculated as the number of individuals with the genotype divided by the total population size.

• Frequency of WW (p²): Frequency of WW = no of WW individuals / Total no of indiviuals = 320/500= 0.64
• Frequency of Ww (2pq): No. of Ww individuals / Total no of individuals = 160/500= 0.32
• Frequency of ww (q²): No of ww individuals / Total no of individuals= 20/500= 0.04

Calculate the total number of each allele in the population. Each individual contributes two alleles.

Number of W alleles:

• From WW individuals: ( 320 X 2 = 640 )
• From Ww individuals: ( 160 X 1 = 160 )
• Total W = 640 + 160=800

Number of w alleles:

• From ww individuals: ( 20 X 2 = 40 )
• From Ww individuals: ( 160 X 1 = 160 )
• Total w = 40+160= 200

Next, calculate the total number of alleles in the population:

Total alleles in the population = 2 x (Number of individuals} = 2 x 500 = 1000 

Now, determine the allele frequencies:

• Frequency of W (p): 800/1000= 0.8
• Frequency of w (q): 200/1000 = 0.2

Summary
Genotype Frequencies:

• WW: 0.64
• Ww: 0.32
• ww: 0.04

Allele Frequencies:

• W: 0.8
• w: 0.2