Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Nursing - Download Free PDF

Last updated on May 13, 2025

Latest Nursing MCQ Objective Questions

Nursing Question 1:

Under SDGs, which indicator tracks the proportion of population covered by health insurance or public health schemes?

  1. 3.8.1
  2. 1.1.1
  3. 2.2.2
  4. 4.4.3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 3.8.1

Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: 3.8.1
Rationale:
  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations, designed to achieve a better and more sustainable future by 2030. Each SDG has specific targets and measurable indicators to track progress.
  • Indicator 3.8.1 is part of SDG 3, which aims to "Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages." This specific indicator tracks the "coverage of essential health services," including the proportion of the population covered by health insurance or public health schemes.
  • The purpose of Indicator 3.8.1 is to measure progress toward achieving Universal Health Coverage (UHC), which ensures that all individuals and communities can access quality health services without suffering financial hardship.
  • This indicator is critical because access to health insurance or public health schemes plays a significant role in reducing out-of-pocket expenditures, protecting individuals from catastrophic health costs, and ensuring equitable healthcare access.
Explanation of Other Options:
1.1.1
  • Rationale: Indicator 1.1.1 is part of SDG 1, which focuses on ending poverty in all its forms everywhere. This indicator tracks the "proportion of the population living below the international poverty line," which is unrelated to health insurance or public health schemes.
2.2.2
  • Rationale: Indicator 2.2.2 is part of SDG 2, which aims to end hunger and improve nutrition. This indicator measures the "prevalence of malnutrition (weight for height) among children under 5 years of age." It focuses on nutrition and child health, not health insurance or public health schemes.
4.4.3
  • Rationale: Indicator 4.4.3 is part of SDG 4, which focuses on quality education. This indicator measures the "proportion of youth and adults with ICT (information and communications technology) skills," which is unrelated to healthcare coverage or public health schemes.
Conclusion:
  • Among the given options, Indicator 3.8.1 under SDG 3 is the correct choice as it specifically tracks the proportion of the population covered by health insurance or public health schemes. This indicator is a vital measure of progress toward achieving Universal Health Coverage and ensuring equitable access to healthcare services for all.

Nursing Question 2:

Which global organization supports the implementation of Universal Health Coverage with India’s NHM and Ayushman Bharat?

  1. WTO
  2. WHO
  3. IMF
  4. UNHCR

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : WHO

Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: WHO
Rationale:
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. WHO is actively involved in supporting countries to achieve Universal Health Coverage (UHC), a key component of Sustainable Development Goal 3 (SDG 3).
  • In India, WHO provides technical and policy support to programs like the National Health Mission (NHM) and Ayushman Bharat. These initiatives aim to strengthen the healthcare system, ensure equitable access to healthcare services, and reduce financial hardship due to medical expenses.
  • Ayushman Bharat, launched in 2018, is a flagship scheme of the Government of India, comprising two components: Health and Wellness Centers (HWCs) and the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). WHO supports these initiatives by offering expertise in health system strengthening, monitoring, and evaluation.
Explanation of Other Options:
WTO
  • Rationale: The World Trade Organization (WTO) deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It focuses on ensuring smooth trade flows and resolving trade disputes. WTO does not have a mandate for health system support or Universal Health Coverage.
IMF
  • Rationale: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) provides financial assistance and advice to member countries on economic stability and fiscal policies. While IMF addresses macroeconomic issues, it does not directly involve itself in health programs like NHM or Ayushman Bharat.
UNHCR
  • Rationale: The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is responsible for protecting refugees, stateless people, and displaced populations. While UNHCR may work on health issues for displaced persons, its focus is not on national-level health programs or Universal Health Coverage.
Conclusion:
  • The WHO is the global organization that supports the implementation of Universal Health Coverage and works closely with governments, including India, in strengthening healthcare systems and ensuring accessible health services for all. Its role in supporting NHM and Ayushman Bharat underscores its commitment to achieving equitable healthcare globally.

Nursing Question 3:

One major difference between NHM and Ayushman Bharat is:

  1. NHM includes digital platforms, AB does not
  2. NHM is only for elderly
  3. NHM focuses on service delivery, AB includes insurance coverage
  4. NHM is for cities, AB is for villages

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : NHM focuses on service delivery, AB includes insurance coverage

Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: NHM focuses on service delivery, AB includes insurance coverage
Rationale:
  • The National Health Mission (NHM) and Ayushman Bharat (AB) are two key healthcare initiatives in India aimed at improving health outcomes, but they differ significantly in their approach and objectives.
  • NHM primarily focuses on strengthening healthcare service delivery, especially in rural and underserved areas. It includes programs for maternal and child health, disease control, and improving access to primary healthcare infrastructure.
  • Ayushman Bharat, on the other hand, is a comprehensive scheme that includes two major components: the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), which provides health insurance coverage to economically weaker sections, and the establishment of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for preventive and promotive healthcare.
  • The key difference lies in NHM being service-delivery-oriented, while Ayushman Bharat incorporates an insurance-based model to provide financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures.
Explanation of Other Options:
NHM includes digital platforms, AB does not
  • Rationale: This statement is incorrect because both NHM and Ayushman Bharat utilize digital platforms to enhance healthcare delivery. For instance, NHM leverages data systems for monitoring programs, while Ayushman Bharat uses IT platforms for implementing PM-JAY, including beneficiary identification and hospital empanelment.
NHM is only for elderly
  • Rationale: This is incorrect. NHM is not limited to any specific age group. It targets all sections of the population, with a special focus on vulnerable groups such as women, children, and marginalized communities. It aims to improve health outcomes across all demographics.
NHM is for cities, AB is for villages
  • Rationale: This statement is misleading. NHM is designed to address healthcare challenges in both rural and urban areas, though it has a significant focus on rural health. Similarly, Ayushman Bharat is not restricted to villages; it aims to provide healthcare access to all eligible citizens, regardless of their location.
Conclusion:
  • The main distinction between NHM and Ayushman Bharat lies in their core focus areas. NHM emphasizes strengthening healthcare service delivery, infrastructure, and public health systems, while Ayushman Bharat includes an insurance-based model to provide financial protection and access to secondary and tertiary healthcare services. Both programs complement each other to achieve universal health coverage in India.

Nursing Question 4:

In the NHM framework, which global declaration reaffirms the right to health?

  1. Alma Ata Declaration
  2. Geneva Protocol
  3. Kyoto Pact
  4. New Delhi Declaration

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Alma Ata Declaration

Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Alma Ata Declaration
Rationale:
  • The Alma Ata Declaration was adopted in 1978 at the International Conference on Primary Health Care in Alma Ata (now Almaty, Kazakhstan). It is a landmark global declaration that emphasizes the need for universal access to primary health care and reaffirms health as a fundamental human right.
  • The declaration defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." It calls for governments, international organizations, and health sectors to prioritize primary health care to achieve "Health for All" by the year 2000.
  • It also highlights the importance of community involvement, equity, and intersectoral collaboration in health care delivery.
Explanation of Other Options:
Geneva Protocol
  • Rationale: The Geneva Protocol, signed in 1925, is focused on the prohibition of the use of chemical and biological weapons in warfare. While it is a significant document in international law, it does not address the right to health or health care frameworks.
Kyoto Pact
  • Rationale: The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, is an international treaty aimed at combating climate change by reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Although environmental factors can influence health, this treaty does not specifically address the right to health or health care frameworks.
New Delhi Declaration
  • Rationale: While the New Delhi Declaration may refer to various agreements or statements made in international conferences held in New Delhi, none of them are globally recognized as directly affirming the right to health or addressing health care frameworks.
Conclusion:
  • The Alma Ata Declaration is the most relevant global document that reaffirms the right to health, emphasizing universal access to primary health care and the necessity of health equity. It remains a foundational statement in the global health community, guiding health policies and frameworks such as the National Health Mission (NHM).

Nursing Question 5:

What population coverage criterion is used for launching PM-JAY in urban areas?

  1. Census income
  2. Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data
  3. UIDAI database
  4. State income tax records

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data

Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data
Rationale:
  • The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data is used as the population coverage criterion for launching PM-JAY (Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana) in urban areas. SECC data is a comprehensive database that provides information on the socio-economic status of households across India, identifying beneficiaries based on their economic vulnerability.
  • PM-JAY, also referred to as Ayushman Bharat, is a government initiative aimed at providing health insurance coverage to economically weaker sections of society. It ensures financial protection against catastrophic health expenditure and offers free medical treatment at empaneled hospitals.
  • The SECC data includes parameters such as income levels, occupation, housing condition, and caste, which help in identifying the most disadvantaged households. It serves as the primary framework to determine eligibility for PM-JAY in both rural and urban areas.
Explanation of Other Options:
Census income
  • Rationale: Census income alone is not used for determining population coverage under PM-JAY because the Census primarily provides demographic data rather than detailed socio-economic indicators required to identify economically vulnerable households.
  • While Census data can give an overall picture of income levels, it lacks the granularity and multifaceted socio-economic indicators that SECC data provides.
UIDAI database
  • Rationale: UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India) database is primarily used for Aadhaar authentication and identification. It does not provide detailed socio-economic information required to determine eligibility for PM-JAY.
  • The UIDAI database is critical for verifying identity but not sufficient for identifying economically vulnerable households.
State income tax records
  • Rationale: State income tax records are applicable only to individuals who fall under the taxable income bracket. Economically weaker sections of society, who are the primary beneficiaries of PM-JAY, do not generally file income tax returns and hence cannot be identified using this criterion.
  • This option is not suitable for identifying eligible households under PM-JAY as it excludes a large portion of the population living below the poverty line.
Conclusion:
  • The SECC data is the most appropriate and comprehensive criterion for launching PM-JAY in urban areas. It ensures that the scheme reaches the intended beneficiaries by using detailed socio-economic parameters. Other options, while useful for specific purposes, do not provide the necessary data to effectively identify economically vulnerable households.

Top Nursing MCQ Objective Questions

In females, the onset of puberty is first marked by ___________.

  1. Menarche
  2. Thelarche
  3. Pubarche
  4. Adrenarche

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Thelarche

Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution

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Explanation

  • Puberty is the process of happening physical changes in a child's body to mature into an adult body and develop the capability of reproduction.
  • Sequence

  • Thelarche or Breast budging
    • ​Usually, it is the first sign
    • It may often unilateral
  • ​Menarche 
    • ​Usually 2-3 years after breast development
    • Growth spurt peaks before menarche 
  • ​Pubarche 
    • ​Development of Pubic hair 

Key Points

Puberty is marked By Thelarche,  Which means developing of Secondary Sexual Characters

  • Thelarche  age 9.7 years
  • Menarche age 10 and 16
  • Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche  

Additional Information 

  •  It is initiated by the hormonal signaling from the brain to gonads and ovaries.
  • Girls begin puberty at ages 10–11 and complete puberty at ages 15–17.
  • Boys generally begin puberty at age of 11–12 and complete puberty at ages 16–17.

​Other Changes in Females

  • Breast development
  • Development of pubic hair
  • Perineal skin keratinizes
  • The mucosal surface of the vagina becomes thick and pinkish in response to estrogen.
  • Uterus, ovaries, and follicles will increase in size.
  • Menstrual bleeding
  • Pelvis and hip widen

Mistake Points

Kindly note that

Puberty is marked By Thelarche,  Which means the development of Secondary Sexual Characters

  • Thelarche  age 9.7 years
  • Menarche age 10 and 16
  • Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche  

Arthritis is the disease of ________.

  1. Skin
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Joints

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Joints

Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Joints.

  • Arthritis is the disease of Joints.

Key Points

  • Arthritis:
    • The main symptoms of Arthritis are the swelling and tenderness of our joints.
    • The other symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically become worsen with age.
    • Arthritis occurs when your body's immune system attacks the tissues of the body.
    • There are two most common types of arthritis:
      • Osteoarthritis: Most common type of Arthritis.
      • Rheumatoid arthritis: Caused due to attack of the immune system on part of our body.

Additional Information

  • Skin: 
    • The most common form of skin disease is
      • Acne
      • Eczema
      • Psoriasis 
  • Kidney: 
    • The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease
      • Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
      • High blood pressure
  • Liver: 
    • The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including: 
      • Hepatitis A
      • Hepatitis B
      • Hepatitis C

Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy disease?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B6
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin C

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Vitamin C

Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Vitamin C

Vitamins Chemical Name Deficiency Disease
Vitamin A Retinol Night Blindness
Vitamin B1  Thiamine Beriberi
Vitamin C  Ascorbic Acid Scurvy
Vitamin D Calciferol Rickets and osteomalacia
Vitamin K Phylloquinone Non-clotting of Blood
Vitamin B2 Riboflavin Cracking of Skin

Additional Information

  • Vitamins were first discovered by FG Hopkins.
  • The term Vitamin was coined by C Funk.
  • There are two types of Vitamins:
  1. Fat-Soluble- Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
  2. Water-Soluble - Vitamin B and C.
  • Natural sources of Vitamin D are - Sunlight, fish, eggs, and mushrooms. 

In the menstrual cycle, lowering of which hormone causes menstruation?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Estrogen
  4. Follicle stimulating hormone

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Progesterone

Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Progesterone.

Key Points

Concept:

  • Menstrual cycle: The rhythmic series of changes that occur in the reproductive organs of female primates (monkeys, apes, and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle.
  • It is repeated after every 28/29 days. 
  • The menstrual cycle has four phases:
  1. Menstrual phase
  2. Follicular phase
  3. Ovulatory phase 
  4. Luteal phase

Explanation:

  • During the ovulatory phase, at about the 14th day of the cycle, there is a rupture of the graffian follicle and the ovum gets released.
  • The ruptured Graffian follicle soon gets transformed into the Corpus luteum.
  • The Corpus luteum gets stimulated by the rising levels of LH and starts secreting the Progesterone hormone.
  • Progesterone hormone is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining of the uterus.
  • In case if pregnancy does not occur after ovulation the levels of progesterone start to fall down and this leads to the disintegration of the endometrium lining causing menstruation.
  • Thus, lowering of progesterone hormone causes menstruation, as it is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining, and for this reason, only progesterone is also called the pregnancy hormone.

Additional Information

  • Thyroxine: It is an endocrine secretion of the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland requires 120 microgram Iodine per day for the production of thyroxine It regulates the basal metabolic rate of the body.
  • Estrogen, or Oestrogen: It is a sex hormone responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics. 
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone: It is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation

Which gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands?

  1. Thyroid Gland
  2. Pineal Gland
  3. Adrenal glands
  4. Pituitary gland

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Pituitary gland

Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Pituitary Gland.

Key Points

  • The pituitary gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands. The pituitary is often called the master gland because its hormones control another part of the endocrine system like thyroid glands, ovaries, and testes.
  • The pituitary gland has two parts which are the anterior lobe and posterior lobe. Both parts have separate functions. This gland is located at the base of the brain and it is one-third of an inch diameter.

Additional Information

  • The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland and it is located in the base of the throat. It releases hormones that control metabolism. It is 2 inches long. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system which is made up of glands. This gland uses iodine from the food we eat.
  • The pineal gland is a small pea-shaped gland. it is located in the brain. it is called the third eye. It is about one-third inch long and its color is a reddish-grey gland. The pineal gland often appears in X-rays.
  • The adrenal glands are small glands. It is located on top of each kidney.

Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin _______.

  1. A
  2. D
  3. E
  4. K

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : A

Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is A.

  • Vitamins are organic compounds that are required in small amounts in our diet but their deficiency causes specific diseases.
  • Vitamins are designated by alphabets A, B, C, D, etc. Some of them are further named as sub-groups e.g. B1, B2, B6, B12, etc.
  • Vitamins that are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water are kept in this group. These are vitamins A, D, E, and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat-storing) tissues.
  • group vitamins and vitamin are soluble in water so they are grouped together.

  Key Points

  • The deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our bodies. Diseases that occur due to a lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - A causes Night Blindness.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - B causes Beri - Beri. 
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - C causes Scurvy.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - D causes Rickets.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - E causes Less Fertility.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - K causes Non- clotting of blood.

________ connects muscle to the bones.

  1. Cartilage
  2. Areolar
  3. Ligaments
  4. Tendons

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Tendons

Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution

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Concept:

  • Tendons are fibrous connective tissues, and connects muscle to the bones.
  • Ligaments join one bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone for a proper functioning of the body.
  • Both Tendons and Ligaments are made of collagen.
  • Cartilage 
    • is a resilient and smooth elastic tissue, rubber-like padding that covers and protects the ends of long bones at the joints.
    • It is a structural component of the rib cage, the ear, the nose, the bronchial tubes, the intervertebral discs, and many other body components.
    • It is not as hard and rigid as bone, but it is much stiffer and much less flexible than muscle.
  • Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

    • It holds organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues.

    • It also surrounds the blood vessels and nerves.

How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?

  1. 12 pairs
  2. 10 pairs
  3. 15 pairs
  4. 31 pairs

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 12 pairs

Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution

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Explanation-

Cranial nerves

  • 12 pairs of cranial nerves are present.
  • Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain.
  • It relay information between the brain and parts of the body.

The femur bones of the human body are also known as ______.

  1. wrist bones
  2. thigh bones
  3. shoulder bones
  4. collar bones

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : thigh bones

Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution

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   The correct answer is Thigh Bones.

Key Points

  • The femur bones of the human body are also called thigh bones.
    • The femur is the only bone located within the human thigh.
    • It is the longest and the strongest bone in the human body.
    • The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum in the pelvic bone forming the hip joint.
    • while the distal part of the femur articulates with the tibia and kneecap, forming the knee joint.

Additional Information

  • Wrist Bone :
    • Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
      • the radius
      • the ulna 
    • The most commonly injured carpal bone is the scaphoid bone, located near the base of your thumb.
    • The wrist is a complex joint that bridges the hand to the forearm.
    • The bones comprising the wrist include the distal ends of the radius and ulna, 8 carpal bones, and the proximal portions of the 5 metacarpal bones.
    • The trapezoid bone is the smallest bone in the distal row of carpal bones that give structure to the palm of the hand.
  • Shoulder Bone :
    • The shoulder is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body.
    • The shoulder joint is formed where the humerus (upper arm bone) fits into the scapula (shoulder blade), like a ball and socket.
    • The shoulder is made up of three bones:
      • the scapula (shoulder blade), clavicle (collarbone), and humerus (upper arm bone).
    • Two joints in the shoulder allow it to move:
      • the acromioclavicular joint, where the highest point of the scapula (acromion) meets the clavicle, and the glenohumeral joint.
    • The humerus fits relatively loosely into the shoulder joint.
    • This gives the shoulder a wide range of motion but also makes it vulnerable to injury.
    • Four joints are present in the shoulder:
      • the sternoclavicular (SC), acromioclavicular (AC), and scapulothoracic joints, and glenohumeral joint.
  • Coller Bone :
    • The collarbone (clavicle) is a long slender bone that connects your arms to your body.
    • It runs horizontally between the top of your breastbone (sternum) and shoulder blades (scapula).
    • The beauty bone is mostly just another name for your collarbone or clavicle, in women.
    • It is the bone located above the ribs in the chest.
    • Like the ribs, the clavicle is attached to the sternum, sometimes also known as the breast bone, on its medial end.
    • There are two clavicles, one on the left and one on the right.
    • The clavicle is the only long bone in the body that lies horizontally.

Identify marked area in image

  1. Femoral
  2. Radial
  3. Popliteal
  4. Cubital fossa

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Cubital fossa

Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution

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Concept:-

  • The cubital fossa: the cubital fossa is a triangular depression that lies in front of the elbow.
  • Boundaries:
    • Laterally: the brachioradialis muscle
    • Medially: the pronator teres muscle
  • The base of the triangle is formed by an imaginary line drawn between the two epicondyles of the humerus.
  • The floor of the fossa is formed by the supinator muscle laterally and the brachialis muscle medially.
  • The roof is formed by skin and fascia and is reinforced by bicipital aponeurosis.

Additional InformationFemoral area:

  • it relates to the femur and its proximal articulation with the pelvis to form the coxa (hip) joint and its distal articulation with the tibia and patella, and by extension the fibula, to form the knee joint.

Radial bone:

  • it is one of the two large bones of the forearm, the other being the ulna. It extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist and runs parallel to the ulna.

Popliteal Fossa is a diamond-shaped space behind the knee joint. 

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