Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Nursing - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jul 9, 2025
Latest Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Nursing Question 1:
In fetal monitoring, the lowest point of fetal heart rate during bradycardia lasting ≥3 minutes is called the:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Nadir
Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Nadir
Rationale:
- In fetal monitoring, "Nadir" refers to the lowest point of the fetal heart rate during an episode of bradycardia (an abnormally slow heart rate). Bradycardia lasting ≥3 minutes is considered significant and can indicate fetal distress or compromised oxygenation.
- The term "Nadir" is specifically used to describe the lowest value of the heart rate during these prolonged decelerations. Identifying the nadir is critical for assessing the severity of fetal heart rate abnormalities and determining appropriate clinical interventions.
- Prolonged bradycardia may result from various causes, such as umbilical cord compression, uteroplacental insufficiency, or maternal hypotension. Monitoring the nadir and overall pattern of fetal heart rate helps clinicians evaluate fetal well-being.
- Fetal monitoring technologies, such as cardiotocography (CTG), are used to track and record fetal heart rate patterns and uterine contractions. Recognizing the nadir is an essential component of interpreting CTG results.
Explanation of Other Options:
Acme
- Rationale: "Acme" refers to the highest point or peak, which is the opposite of "Nadir." In the context of fetal monitoring, acme might describe the peak of a contraction or the highest point of a heart rate acceleration, but it is not used to describe the lowest point during bradycardia.
Deceleration
- Rationale: "Deceleration" refers to a temporary slowing of the fetal heart rate, often associated with uterine contractions. While decelerations can include a nadir, the term "nadir" specifically identifies the lowest point of the heart rate during a prolonged bradycardia episode, whereas "deceleration" is a broader term.
Plateau
- Rationale: "Plateau" refers to a flat or stable section of a graph or trend. In fetal monitoring, a plateau may indicate a stable fetal heart rate but does not describe the lowest point during bradycardia. Plateaus are not directly related to the concept of a nadir.
(No Option 5)
- Rationale: No valid fifth option is provided in the question. This placeholder does not contribute to the explanation.
Conclusion:
- In fetal monitoring, the nadir is the lowest point of fetal heart rate during prolonged bradycardia episodes lasting ≥3 minutes. It is a critical marker for assessing fetal well-being and guiding clinical decisions. Other terms like acme, deceleration, and plateau have distinct definitions and are not interchangeable with nadir in this context.
Nursing Question 2:
Cardiac output in a postpartum woman typically returns to normal within:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 10 days
Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 10 days
Rationale:
- After delivery, the cardiovascular system undergoes significant changes as the body transitions from the pregnant to the postpartum state. Cardiac output, which is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, is elevated during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic demands of the mother and fetus.
- Postpartum, cardiac output begins to decrease as the body eliminates the extra fluid accumulated during pregnancy and as uterine blood flow is significantly reduced. The process of normalization typically takes about 10 days.
- This normalization occurs due to hormonal changes, diuresis (increased urine production), and a reduction in systemic vascular resistance. These processes help to restore the cardiovascular system to its pre-pregnancy state.
Explanation of Other Options:
24 hours
- Rationale: While some immediate cardiovascular changes occur within 24 hours postpartum, such as a reduction in blood volume and heart rate, cardiac output does not fully normalize in this short period. The body still retains some of the increased fluid volume from pregnancy, and additional time is needed to adjust.
3 days
- Rationale: By 3 days postpartum, significant diuresis and hormonal adjustments have begun, leading to a reduction in blood volume and workload on the heart. However, cardiac output typically remains elevated compared to the pre-pregnancy state, as these changes are still ongoing.
7 days
- Rationale: By 7 days postpartum, the cardiovascular system is closer to normalization, but cardiac output may still be slightly elevated. Hormonal and vascular changes, as well as continued fluid shifts, require additional time to fully stabilize.
10 days
- Rationale: By 10 days postpartum, most of the cardiovascular changes associated with pregnancy have resolved. Cardiac output typically returns to the pre-pregnancy baseline during this time, as the body has completed the majority of fluid elimination and vascular adjustments.
Conclusion:
- The postpartum period involves significant physiological changes, particularly within the cardiovascular system. Among the given options, 10 days is the most accurate timeframe for cardiac output to return to normal. This reflects the time required for fluid balance, hormonal regulation, and vascular resistance to stabilize after delivery.
Nursing Question 3:
Which anti-tuberculosis drug is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Streptomycin
Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Streptomycin
Rationale:
- Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB). However, it is contraindicated during pregnancy because it can cross the placenta and potentially cause harm to the developing fetus.
- The primary concern with Streptomycin is its ototoxicity, which can lead to irreversible hearing loss in the fetus. This occurs due to damage to the auditory nerve or structures within the inner ear.
- Due to its teratogenic effects, Streptomycin should generally be avoided during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary and no safer alternatives are available.
Brief Overview of Tuberculosis Treatment During Pregnancy:
- Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Pregnant women diagnosed with TB require careful management to balance effective treatment and fetal safety.
- Many first-line anti-TB drugs are considered relatively safe during pregnancy, but certain drugs, like Streptomycin, are avoided due to their known risks.
Explanation of Other Options:
Rifampicin
- Rationale: Rifampicin is considered relatively safe during pregnancy and is often used in the treatment of TB. While it can cross the placenta, studies have not shown significant teratogenic effects. However, it may increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to its effect on clotting mechanisms.
Isoniazid
- Rationale: Isoniazid is a first-line anti-TB medication and is considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is often prescribed alongside pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common side effect.
Ethambutol
- Rationale: Ethambutol is also considered safe during pregnancy and is commonly used as part of a multi-drug regimen to treat TB. However, it may cause optic neuritis as a side effect, which requires monitoring during treatment.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, Streptomycin is the anti-TB drug contraindicated during pregnancy due to its potential to cause irreversible hearing loss in the fetus. Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Ethambutol are generally considered safe and are frequently used to treat TB in pregnant women under careful medical supervision.
Nursing Question 4:
Which drug is the first-line treatment for seizure control in pre-eclampsia?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Magnesium sulfate
Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate
Rationale:
- Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for seizure control in pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to organs, often the kidneys or liver. If untreated, it can progress to eclampsia, which includes seizures.
- Magnesium sulfate is used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and treat seizures associated with pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. It works by stabilizing the neuronal membranes and decreasing the excitability of neurons, reducing the likelihood of seizures.
- The drug is administered intravenously, and its dosing is carefully monitored to avoid toxicity. Signs of magnesium toxicity include loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. Therefore, frequent monitoring of serum magnesium levels and clinical symptoms is essential.
- Magnesium sulfate also has vasodilatory effects, which may help lower blood pressure in pre-eclampsia patients, although it is not primarily used as an antihypertensive agent.
Explanation of Other Options:
Diazepam
- Rationale: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts as a sedative and anticonvulsant. While it can control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for seizures in pre-eclampsia. It may be used as a second-line option if magnesium sulfate is contraindicated or ineffective.
Nifedipine
- Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage high blood pressure and prevent preterm labor. While hypertension is a key feature of pre-eclampsia, nifedipine does not directly address the seizure component of the condition.
Hydralazine
- Rationale: Hydralazine is another antihypertensive medication commonly used to treat severe hypertension in pre-eclampsia. However, it does not have anticonvulsant properties, making it unsuitable for seizure control.
(Option Missing)
- Rationale: There is no fifth option provided in the question. If included, it should be clarified whether it is relevant to the topic of seizure control in pre-eclampsia.
Conclusion:
- Magnesium sulfate remains the gold standard for seizure control in pre-eclampsia due to its effectiveness and ability to stabilize neuronal activity. Other medications like diazepam may be used as alternatives but are not preferred due to their side effect profile and less specific action in pre-eclampsia.
Nursing Question 5:
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss exceeding:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 500 ml
Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Blood loss exceeding 500 ml
Rationale:
- Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant obstetric emergency and is a leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide. It is defined as blood loss exceeding 500 ml following a vaginal delivery or over 1000 ml after a cesarean section.
- The 500 ml threshold serves as a clinical benchmark for identifying and managing excessive blood loss after childbirth. Early identification of PPH is critical to initiating timely interventions, such as uterotonic medications, uterine massage, and fluid resuscitation, to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock and death.
- PPH is classified into two types: primary PPH (occurring within 24 hours of delivery) and secondary PPH (occurring 24 hours to 12 weeks postpartum). Primary PPH is more common and often due to uterine atony, trauma, retained placenta, or coagulopathy.
- Prompt management of PPH typically involves a stepwise approach, including identifying the cause, restoring blood volume, and surgical interventions if required (e.g., uterine artery ligation or hysterectomy in severe cases).
Explanation of Other Options:
250 ml
- Rationale: Blood loss of 250 ml does not meet the clinical definition of PPH. While smaller amounts of blood loss may still cause symptoms in patients with preexisting anemia or other conditions, this threshold is not used to define PPH in clinical practice.
400 ml
- Rationale: A blood loss of 400 ml is also below the standard threshold for PPH. Although this level of blood loss may cause mild symptoms like dizziness or fatigue, it is not classified as PPH unless it exceeds 500 ml following vaginal delivery.
700 ml
- Rationale: While a blood loss of 700 ml exceeds the threshold for PPH, this specific value is not used as the clinical definition. Blood loss of this magnitude would require immediate medical attention, but the standard definition of PPH begins at 500 ml for vaginal deliveries.
Additional Information:
- PPH risk factors include prolonged labor, multiple pregnancies, use of forceps or vacuum during delivery, and a history of PPH in previous pregnancies.
- Preventive measures include the active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL), which involves the administration of uterotonic drugs (e.g., oxytocin), controlled cord traction, and uterine massage after delivery of the placenta.
- Delayed recognition of PPH can result in severe complications, including organ failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and maternal death, emphasizing the importance of early detection and management.
Conclusion:
- PPH is defined as blood loss exceeding 500 ml following vaginal delivery, making it a critical clinical benchmark for managing postpartum complications. Recognizing and managing PPH promptly is essential to reducing maternal morbidity and mortality.
Top Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
In females, the onset of puberty is first marked by ___________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Thelarche
Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation
- Puberty is the process of happening physical changes in a child's body to mature into an adult body and develop the capability of reproduction.
-
Sequence
- Thelarche or Breast budging
- Usually, it is the first sign
- It may often unilateral
- Menarche
- Usually 2-3 years after breast development
- Growth spurt peaks before menarche
- Pubarche
- Development of Pubic hair
Key Points
Puberty is marked By Thelarche, Which means developing of Secondary Sexual Characters
- Thelarche age 9.7 years
- Menarche age 10 and 16
- Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche
Additional Information
- It is initiated by the hormonal signaling from the brain to gonads and ovaries.
- Girls begin puberty at ages 10–11 and complete puberty at ages 15–17.
- Boys generally begin puberty at age of 11–12 and complete puberty at ages 16–17.
Other Changes in Females
- Breast development
- Development of pubic hair
- Perineal skin keratinizes
- The mucosal surface of the vagina becomes thick and pinkish in response to estrogen.
- Uterus, ovaries, and follicles will increase in size.
- Menstrual bleeding
- Pelvis and hip widen
Mistake Points
Kindly note that
Puberty is marked By Thelarche, Which means the development of Secondary Sexual Characters
- Thelarche age 9.7 years
- Menarche age 10 and 16
- Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche
Arthritis is the disease of ________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Joints
Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Joints.
- Arthritis is the disease of Joints.
Key Points
- Arthritis:
- The main symptoms of Arthritis are the swelling and tenderness of our joints.
- The other symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically become worsen with age.
- Arthritis occurs when your body's immune system attacks the tissues of the body.
- There are two most common types of arthritis:
- Osteoarthritis: Most common type of Arthritis.
- Rheumatoid arthritis: Caused due to attack of the immune system on part of our body.
Additional Information
- Skin:
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Acne
- Eczema
- Psoriasis
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Kidney:
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
- High blood pressure
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Liver:
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy disease?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Vitamin C
Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Vitamin C
| Vitamins | Chemical Name | Deficiency Disease |
| Vitamin A | Retinol | Night Blindness |
| Vitamin B1 | Thiamine | Beriberi |
| Vitamin C | Ascorbic Acid | Scurvy |
| Vitamin D | Calciferol | Rickets and osteomalacia |
| Vitamin K | Phylloquinone | Non-clotting of Blood |
| Vitamin B2 | Riboflavin | Cracking of Skin |
Additional Information
- Vitamins were first discovered by FG Hopkins.
- The term Vitamin was coined by C Funk.
- There are two types of Vitamins:
- Fat-Soluble- Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
- Water-Soluble - Vitamin B and C.
- Natural sources of Vitamin D are - Sunlight, fish, eggs, and mushrooms.
In the menstrual cycle, lowering of which hormone causes menstruation?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Progesterone
Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Progesterone.
Key Points
Concept:
- Menstrual cycle: The rhythmic series of changes that occur in the reproductive organs of female primates (monkeys, apes, and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle.
- It is repeated after every 28/29 days.
- The menstrual cycle has four phases:
- Menstrual phase
- Follicular phase
- Ovulatory phase
- Luteal phase
Explanation:
- During the ovulatory phase, at about the 14th day of the cycle, there is a rupture of the graffian follicle and the ovum gets released.
- The ruptured Graffian follicle soon gets transformed into the Corpus luteum.
- The Corpus luteum gets stimulated by the rising levels of LH and starts secreting the Progesterone hormone.
- Progesterone hormone is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining of the uterus.
- In case if pregnancy does not occur after ovulation the levels of progesterone start to fall down and this leads to the disintegration of the endometrium lining causing menstruation.
- Thus, lowering of progesterone hormone causes menstruation, as it is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining, and for this reason, only progesterone is also called the pregnancy hormone.
Additional Information
- Thyroxine: It is an endocrine secretion of the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland requires 120 microgram Iodine per day for the production of thyroxine It regulates the basal metabolic rate of the body.
- Estrogen, or Oestrogen: It is a sex hormone responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics.
- Follicle-stimulating hormone: It is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation
Which gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Pituitary gland
Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Pituitary Gland.
Key Points
- The pituitary gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands. The pituitary is often called the master gland because its hormones control another part of the endocrine system like thyroid glands, ovaries, and testes.
- The pituitary gland has two parts which are the anterior lobe and posterior lobe. Both parts have separate functions. This gland is located at the base of the brain and it is one-third of an inch diameter.
Additional Information
- The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland and it is located in the base of the throat. It releases hormones that control metabolism. It is 2 inches long. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system which is made up of glands. This gland uses iodine from the food we eat.
- The pineal gland is a small pea-shaped gland. it is located in the brain. it is called the third eye. It is about one-third inch long and its color is a reddish-grey gland. The pineal gland often appears in X-rays.
- The adrenal glands are small glands. It is located on top of each kidney.
Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin _______.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : A
Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is A.
- Vitamins are organic compounds that are required in small amounts in our diet but their deficiency causes specific diseases.
- Vitamins are designated by alphabets A, B, C, D, etc. Some of them are further named as sub-groups e.g. B1, B2, B6, B12, etc.
- Vitamins that are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water are kept in this group. These are vitamins A, D, E, and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat-storing) tissues.
- B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water so they are grouped together.
Key Points
- The deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our bodies. Diseases that occur due to a lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - A causes Night Blindness.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - B causes Beri - Beri.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - C causes Scurvy.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - D causes Rickets.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - E causes Less Fertility.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - K causes Non- clotting of blood.
________ connects muscle to the bones.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Tendons
Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Tendons are fibrous connective tissues, and connects muscle to the bones.
- Ligaments join one bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone for a proper functioning of the body.
- Both Tendons and Ligaments are made of collagen.
- Cartilage
- is a resilient and smooth elastic tissue, rubber-like padding that covers and protects the ends of long bones at the joints.
- It is a structural component of the rib cage, the ear, the nose, the bronchial tubes, the intervertebral discs, and many other body components.
- It is not as hard and rigid as bone, but it is much stiffer and much less flexible than muscle.
-
Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.
-
It holds organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues.
-
It also surrounds the blood vessels and nerves.
-
How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : 12 pairs
Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation-
Cranial nerves
- 12 pairs of cranial nerves are present.
- Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain.
- It relay information between the brain and parts of the body.
The femur bones of the human body are also known as ______.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : thigh bones
Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Thigh Bones.
Key Points
- The femur bones of the human body are also called thigh bones.
- The femur is the only bone located within the human thigh.
- It is the longest and the strongest bone in the human body.
- The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum in the pelvic bone forming the hip joint.
- while the distal part of the femur articulates with the tibia and kneecap, forming the knee joint.
Additional Information
- Wrist Bone :
- Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
- the radius
- the ulna
- The most commonly injured carpal bone is the scaphoid bone, located near the base of your thumb.
- The wrist is a complex joint that bridges the hand to the forearm.
- The bones comprising the wrist include the distal ends of the radius and ulna, 8 carpal bones, and the proximal portions of the 5 metacarpal bones.
- The trapezoid bone is the smallest bone in the distal row of carpal bones that give structure to the palm of the hand.
- Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
- Shoulder Bone :
- The shoulder is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body.
- The shoulder joint is formed where the humerus (upper arm bone) fits into the scapula (shoulder blade), like a ball and socket.
- The shoulder is made up of three bones:
- the scapula (shoulder blade), clavicle (collarbone), and humerus (upper arm bone).
- Two joints in the shoulder allow it to move:
- the acromioclavicular joint, where the highest point of the scapula (acromion) meets the clavicle, and the glenohumeral joint.
- The humerus fits relatively loosely into the shoulder joint.
- This gives the shoulder a wide range of motion but also makes it vulnerable to injury.
- Four joints are present in the shoulder:
- the sternoclavicular (SC), acromioclavicular (AC), and scapulothoracic joints, and glenohumeral joint.
- Coller Bone :
- The collarbone (clavicle) is a long slender bone that connects your arms to your body.
- It runs horizontally between the top of your breastbone (sternum) and shoulder blades (scapula).
- The beauty bone is mostly just another name for your collarbone or clavicle, in women.
- It is the bone located above the ribs in the chest.
- Like the ribs, the clavicle is attached to the sternum, sometimes also known as the breast bone, on its medial end.
- There are two clavicles, one on the left and one on the right.
- The clavicle is the only long bone in the body that lies horizontally.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Cubital fossa
Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:-
- The cubital fossa: the cubital fossa is a triangular depression that lies in front of the elbow.
- Boundaries:
- Laterally: the brachioradialis muscle
- Medially: the pronator teres muscle
- The base of the triangle is formed by an imaginary line drawn between the two epicondyles of the humerus.
- The floor of the fossa is formed by the supinator muscle laterally and the brachialis muscle medially.
- The roof is formed by skin and fascia and is reinforced by bicipital aponeurosis.
Additional InformationFemoral area:
- it relates to the femur and its proximal articulation with the pelvis to form the coxa (hip) joint and its distal articulation with the tibia and patella, and by extension the fibula, to form the knee joint.
Radial bone:
- it is one of the two large bones of the forearm, the other being the ulna. It extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist and runs parallel to the ulna.
Popliteal Fossa is a diamond-shaped space behind the knee joint.