Biotechnology MCQ Quiz in తెలుగు - Objective Question with Answer for Biotechnology - ముఫ్త్ [PDF] డౌన్లోడ్ కరెన్
Last updated on Apr 13, 2025
Latest Biotechnology MCQ Objective Questions
Top Biotechnology MCQ Objective Questions
Biotechnology Question 1:
Which substance is reabsorbed in the kidney and is elevated in the blood when renal function is compromised?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 1 Detailed Solution
- Creatinine is a waste product produced by the normal wear and tear of muscles in the body. It is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys and excreted in urine.
- When renal function is compromised, the kidneys are less able to filter creatinine from the blood, resulting in elevated levels of creatinine in the bloodstream.
- Measuring the serum creatinine level is a key indicator of kidney function. Elevated levels can indicate impaired kidney function or kidney disease.
- Rationale: Uric acid is a waste product formed from the breakdown of purines, which are found in certain foods and are also produced by the body. While high levels of uric acid can lead to gout and kidney stones, it is not a primary indicator of kidney function. Elevated uric acid levels do not specifically indicate compromised renal function.
- Rationale: Glucose is normally reabsorbed in the kidneys and is not present in the urine of healthy individuals. Elevated glucose levels in the blood are typically related to diabetes mellitus. When blood sugar levels are extremely high, glucose can appear in the urine (a condition known as glucosuria), but this is not a specific marker for kidney function.
- Rationale: Protein is generally not found in the urine of healthy individuals. The presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) can indicate kidney damage, but it is not a specific waste product that accumulates in the blood when renal function is compromised. Proteinuria can result from various conditions, including diabetes and hypertension.
- Among the given options, creatinine is the most specific marker for assessing renal function. Elevated levels of creatinine in the blood are a direct indicator of reduced kidney function and can help diagnose and monitor kidney disease.
Biotechnology Question 2:
Which of the following measurements is most commonly used to estimate renal function and assess for kidney disease?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 2 Detailed Solution
- Creatinine clearance is a measurement that evaluates the rate at which the kidneys filter creatinine, a waste product from muscle metabolism, from the blood. It is considered one of the most accurate ways to assess renal function and diagnose kidney disease.
- The creatinine clearance test involves measuring the concentration of creatinine in a 24-hour urine sample and a blood sample. The results are used to calculate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which indicates how well the kidneys are functioning.
- A decrease in creatinine clearance indicates impaired kidney function, which could be due to chronic kidney disease or acute kidney injury.
- Rationale: Serum calcium levels are used to assess calcium metabolism and diagnose conditions such as hypercalcemia or hypocalcemia. While important for overall health, calcium levels do not directly reflect kidney function.
- Rationale: BUN measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, a waste product of protein metabolism. Although BUN levels can indicate kidney function, they can also be influenced by factors such as hydration status, protein intake, and liver function, making it less specific than creatinine clearance for assessing renal function.
- Rationale: Serum bilirubin is a measurement of the amount of bilirubin in the blood. It is used to assess liver function and diagnose conditions such as jaundice, liver disease, and hemolytic anemia. It does not provide information about kidney function.
- Among the given options, creatinine clearance is the most specific and accurate measurement for estimating renal function and assessing kidney disease. While other tests like BUN and serum calcium are useful for different health assessments, they do not directly measure kidney filtration capacity like creatinine clearance does.
Biotechnology Question 3:
Choose the correct sequence of electron transport during electron transport chain of light reaction:
(A) Pheophytin
(B) Plastoquinone
(C) Cytb6-f complex
(D) Plastocyanin
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 3 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is: (A), (B), (C), (D).
Explanation:
The electron transport chain (ETC) during the light reaction of photosynthesis involves the transfer of electrons through a series of protein complexes and molecules. The correct sequence of electron transport is as follows:
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(A) Pheophytin: The electron transfer begins with Pheophytin, which is the first electron acceptor from Photosystem II (PSII). It receives electrons from the excited chlorophyll molecules.
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(B) Plastoquinone: After being reduced by Pheophytin, electrons are transferred to Plastoquinone (PQ), which functions similarly to ubiquinone in mitochondrial electron transport chains. It transports electrons to the next step in the chain.
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(C) Cytb6-f complex: Plastoquinone passes the electrons to the Cytb6-f complex, a membrane-bound protein complex that facilitates proton pumping across the thylakoid membrane, contributing to the proton gradient necessary for ATP synthesis.
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(D) Plastocyanin: Finally, electrons from Cytb6-f complex are transferred to Plastocyanin, a copper-containing protein, which carries the electrons to Photosystem I (PSI) for further processing.
Biotechnology Question 4:
Which of the following is the example of Gram-negative bacteria?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 4 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is: Escherichia coli
Explanation:
- Escherichia coli (E. coli) is a well-known Gram-negative bacterium. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides. When subjected to a Gram stain, they appear pink due to the thin peptidoglycan layer and the inability to retain the crystal violet dye.
Other options:
- Lactobacillus: This is a Gram-positive bacterium, characterized by a thick peptidoglycan cell wall that retains the crystal violet stain, appearing purple under the microscope.
- Bacillus subtilis: Also a Gram-positive bacterium, it has a thick peptidoglycan layer and stains purple in a Gram stain procedure.
- Staphylococcus aureus: This is another Gram-positive bacterium with a thick peptidoglycan cell wall that stains purple.
| Characteristic | Gram-positive Bacteria | Gram-negative Bacteria |
|---|---|---|
| Cell Wall Structure | Thick peptidoglycan layer | Thin peptidoglycan layer + outer membrane |
| Cell Wall Composition | High in peptidoglycan, no outer membrane | Peptidoglycan, outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS) |
| Gram Staining | Retains crystal violet stain, appears purple | Does not retain crystal violet, appears pink/red |
| Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) | Absent | Present in the outer membrane |
| Teichoic Acids | Present (in cell wall) | Absent |
| Susceptibility to Penicillin | Generally susceptible due to lack of outer membrane | Often resistant due to outer membrane protection |
| Examples | Lactobacillus, Bacillus subtilis, Staphylococcus aureus | Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Endotoxins | Rare, typically does not produce endotoxins | Often produce endotoxins (LPS) |
| Toxin Production | Exotoxins are common | Exotoxins and endotoxins are common |
| Periplasmic Space | Absent or minimal | Present between inner and outer membranes |
| Shape | Can be cocci (round), bacilli (rod-shaped) | Can be cocci (round), bacilli (rod-shaped), or spiral |
Biotechnology Question 5:
Retroviruses are enveloped viruses that can be engineered to deliver how many bases of singlestranded RNA
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 5 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is: 8000 bases
Explanation:
- Retroviruses are enveloped RNA viruses that use reverse transcription to convert their single-stranded RNA genome into double-stranded DNA, which integrates into the host genome.
- Engineered retroviruses (like lentiviral vectors) are commonly used in gene therapy to deliver genetic material. These vectors can accommodate and deliver up to 8,000 bases of single-stranded RNA.
- This capacity makes retroviruses suitable for introducing relatively large genes into host cells compared to other viral delivery systems.
Biotechnology Question 6:
The complete proteins produced by an organism at any one time, is called
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 6 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is: Proteome
Explanation:
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Proteome:
- Refers to the complete set of proteins produced by an organism at a specific time under certain conditions. It reflects the functional output of the genome and varies depending on the cell type, developmental stage, and environmental factors.
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Why the other options are incorrect:
- Transcriptome: Refers to the complete set of RNA transcripts (including mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, etc.) produced by an organism at a particular time.
- Lipidome: Refers to the complete set of lipids (fats and related molecules) present in a cell or organism at a given time.
- Metagenome: Refers to the collective genome of microorganisms in an environmental sample.
Biotechnology Question 7:
The portion of transmembrane proteins that cross the lipid bilayer are usually
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 7 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is: α-helices
Explanation:
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α-helices are the most common structure found in the portions of transmembrane proteins that span the lipid bilayer. These helices are hydrophobic in nature, allowing them to interact favorably with the hydrophobic core of the membrane. They can stabilize the protein structure within the membrane.
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β-sheets, while important in other regions of proteins, typically do not form the transmembrane regions because their structure is less favorable in the hydrophobic environment of the lipid bilayer.
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Turns and loops are often found in regions of proteins that are exposed to the aqueous environment, rather than in the membrane-spanning portions.
Key Points
- Membrane-spanning α-helices often contain hydrophobic amino acids, which interact with the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids, stabilizing the protein within the membrane.
- The number of transmembrane helices in a protein varies, with some proteins having a single helix and others having multiple helices forming a channel or pore.
- β-barrels, while less common, are found in the outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. They are made up of β-sheets arranged in a barrel-like structure.
- Transmembrane protein domains may also undergo conformational changes upon ligand binding or environmental changes, which is crucial for signal transduction and transport functions.
- Hydropathy plots are used to predict transmembrane segments by analyzing the hydrophobicity of amino acid sequences.
- Transmembrane proteins play key roles in processes like cell signaling, transport, and maintaining cell structure.
Biotechnology Question 8:
In which of the following organelles are HSP70 chaperons NOT typically found?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 8 Detailed Solution
The correct option is: 2 .
Explanation:
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Endoplasmic reticulum: This statement is incorrect. HSP70 chaperones are typically found in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), where they assist in the proper folding of nascent proteins and help prevent misfolding.
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Golgi bodies: This statement is correct. HSP70 chaperones are not typically associated with the Golgi apparatus. While the Golgi does play a role in protein processing and sorting, it does not primarily contain HSP70 chaperones, which are more involved in the folding and stabilization of proteins as they are synthesized.
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Nucleus: This statement is incorrect. HSP70 chaperones can be found in the nucleus, where they assist in the folding and maintenance of nuclear proteins and can also be involved in DNA repair processes.
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Mitochondria: This statement is incorrect. HSP70 chaperones are present in mitochondria, where they play a crucial role in the import and folding of mitochondrial proteins.
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Heat shock proteins (HSPs), including HSP70, are crucial for cellular stress responses, helping to ensure protein homeostasis. Their presence in various organelles reflects their importance in protecting cells from stress and assisting in the proper functioning of proteins.
Biotechnology Question 9:
Which organelle is primarily responsible for assisting in the proper folding and refolding of proteins within eukaryotic cells?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 9 Detailed Solution
The correct option is: 3
Explanation:
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Mitochondria: This statement is incorrect. Mitochondria are primarily involved in energy production through oxidative phosphorylation and the citric acid cycle. They do not play a direct role in protein folding.
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Golgi apparatus: This statement is incorrect. The Golgi apparatus is involved in the modification, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles. While it does contribute to the maturation of proteins, it is not primarily responsible for their folding.
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Endoplasmic reticulum: This statement is correct. The endoplasmic reticulum (ER), particularly the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), is the organelle responsible for the synthesis and proper folding of proteins. The RER contains chaperone proteins that assist in the folding process and ensure that proteins achieve their correct three-dimensional structures before being transported to their final destinations.
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Nucleus: This statement is incorrect. The nucleus houses the cell's genetic material and is involved in gene expression and regulation, but it does not directly assist in the folding of proteins.
- Proper protein folding is essential for protein functionality. Misfolded proteins can lead to cellular dysfunction and diseases such as cystic fibrosis and Alzheimer's disease. The ER's role in protein folding highlights its importance in maintaining cellular health and homeostasis.
Biotechnology Question 10:
Which of the following organelles plays a crucial role in the initiation of apoptosis by releasing pro-apoptotic factors?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Biotechnology Question 10 Detailed Solution
The correct option is: 1.
Explanation:
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Mitochondria: These organelles are crucial in the initiation of apoptosis by releasing pro-apoptotic factors, such as cytochrome c, into the cytosol. This release activates caspases, leading to the execution of apoptosis. Mitochondria thus play a central role in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis, responding to stress signals and cellular damage.
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Nucleus: While the nucleus is vital for cell regulation and houses the genetic material, it does not directly initiate apoptosis by releasing pro-apoptotic factors. However, it can be involved in the process by activating genes that promote apoptosis under certain conditions.
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Golgi apparatus: This organelle is primarily responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles. It does not have a direct role in apoptosis or in releasing pro-apoptotic factors.
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Endoplasmic reticulum (ER): The ER plays a role in protein and lipid synthesis and calcium storage. It can influence apoptosis under stress conditions (such as in the case of the unfolded protein response) but does not directly release pro-apoptotic factors like mitochondria do.
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The mitochondria's role in apoptosis is critical for maintaining cellular homeostasis, and their dysfunction can lead to various diseases, including cancer and neurodegenerative disorders. The other organelles, while essential for various cellular functions, do not participate in the direct initiation of apoptosis through the release of pro-apoptotic factors.