Pathology and Genetics MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Pathology and Genetics - Download Free PDF
Last updated on May 17, 2025
Latest Pathology and Genetics MCQ Objective Questions
Pathology and Genetics Question 1:
Match staining techniques with their targets:
Column A | Column B |
---|---|
1. MGG stain | a. Cytoplasmic details in cytology |
2. Leishman stain | b. Blood smear |
3. Papanicolaou stain | c. Cervical cytology |
4. PAS stain | d. Mucin/carbohydrates |
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 1 Detailed Solution
The question requires matching specific staining techniques with their respective targets. Staining techniques are critical in histology, hematology, and cytology to enhance visualization of cells and tissues under a microscope. Different stains have unique affinities for particular cellular components, enabling targeted examination. Below is the rationale for the correct matches:
- 1. MGG stain (May-Grünwald-Giemsa stain) - a. Cytoplasmic details in cytology: The MGG stain is primarily used in cytology for its ability to highlight cytoplasmic details. It is particularly useful in identifying cell morphology, making it valuable in diagnosing blood disorders and cytological studies.
- 2. Leishman stain - b. Blood smear: Leishman stain is a Romanowsky-type stain used for staining blood smears. It is highly effective in differentiating between various types of blood cells and detecting abnormalities such as malaria parasites.
- 3. Papanicolaou stain - c. Cervical cytology: Commonly known as Pap stain, this technique is widely used in cervical cytology, especially for Pap smears. It helps in detecting abnormal cells, including precancerous or cancerous changes in the cervix.
- 4. PAS stain (Periodic Acid-Schiff stain) - d. Mucin/carbohydrates: PAS stain is used to detect polysaccharides such as glycogen and mucin in tissues. It is particularly useful in identifying fungal infections and mucin-producing tumors.
- This option incorrectly matches the stains to their targets. For example, MGG stain is not used for detecting mucin/carbohydrates (1-d). Similarly, Leishman stain is used for blood smears, not cytoplasmic details (2-a). The mismatches indicate a lack of understanding of the specific applications of these stains.
- This option also misattributes the stains to incorrect targets. For instance, MGG stain is not used for blood smears (1-b), and Leishman stain is not appropriate for cervical cytology (2-c). Such mismatches disregard the established uses of these staining techniques in diagnostic pathology.
- This option again provides incorrect pairings. For example, MGG stain is not used for cervical cytology (1-c), and PAS stain is not used for blood smears (4-b). These errors highlight a misunderstanding of the fundamental principles of staining techniques and their specific applications.
- The correct matches align the staining techniques with their respective targets as follows: MGG stain for cytoplasmic details, Leishman stain for blood smears, Papanicolaou stain for cervical cytology, and PAS stain for mucin/carbohydrates. Understanding these pairings is essential for accurate diagnostic and histological applications.
Pathology and Genetics Question 2:
Match the decalcifying agents with their properties:
Column A | Column B |
---|---|
1. Nitric acid | a. Very rapid, poor staining |
2. EDTA | b. Slow, excellent morphology |
3. Formic acid | c. Moderate, good for biopsy |
4. Hydrochloric acid | d. Rapid, damages morphology |
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 2 Detailed Solution
- Decalcifying agents are chemical substances used in histopathology to remove calcium from tissues, enabling proper sectioning and microscopic examination. Each decalcifying agent has specific properties that make it suitable for certain applications, depending on the speed of decalcification and the preservation of tissue morphology and staining quality.
- The correct answer matches each decalcifying agent in Column A with its property described in Column B:
- Nitric acid is a strong inorganic acid that acts very rapidly to decalcify tissues. However, its aggressive nature can damage tissue morphology and interfere with subsequent staining, making it less suitable for delicate specimens.
- EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is a chelating agent that binds calcium ions. It decalcifies tissues very slowly but is gentle on tissue morphology, preserving cell structures and staining quality. This makes EDTA ideal for specimens requiring detailed histological examination.
- Formic acid is a weaker acid compared to nitric acid and acts at a moderate rate. It is widely used for biopsy specimens as it provides a good balance between decalcification speed and preservation of tissue morphology.
- Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid like nitric acid and decalcifies tissues very rapidly. However, it can adversely affect staining quality and tissue morphology, making it less suitable for delicate histological studies.
- This option incorrectly associates nitric acid with "a. Very rapid, poor staining" instead of "d. Rapid, damages morphology." Similarly, EDTA is incorrectly matched with "c. Moderate, good for biopsy" instead of "b. Slow, excellent morphology." The mismatches continue for formic acid and hydrochloric acid.
- This option mismatches all the agents with incorrect properties. For example, nitric acid is paired with "c. Moderate, good for biopsy," which is not accurate as nitric acid acts rapidly and damages morphology. Similarly, EDTA is incorrectly matched with "d. Rapid, damages morphology," which contradicts its slow and gentle action.
- This option incorrectly pairs nitric acid with "b. Slow, excellent morphology," which is not accurate given its rapid action and damaging effects. The other agents are similarly mismatched, making this option incorrect.
- The correct matching of decalcifying agents with their properties is essential for selecting the appropriate agent in histopathological procedures. Among the given options, 1) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a accurately pairs each agent with its respective characteristics, ensuring optimal results in tissue processing and microscopic examination.
Pathology and Genetics Question 3:
Match the equipment with their primary use:
Column A | Column B |
---|---|
1. Cryostat | a. Sterilization |
2. Microtome | b. Cutting paraffin sections |
3. Water bath | c. Floating ribbons |
4. Hot air oven | d. Freezing sections |
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 3 Detailed Solution
- The question involves matching laboratory equipment to their primary use. Laboratory equipment is designed for specific purposes in diagnostic, clinical, and research settings, and understanding their functions ensures proper utilization in various processes.
- Rationale: A cryostat is a precision instrument used to cut thin sections of biological tissues at very low temperatures. It operates in a frozen environment and is primarily used for rapid preparation of tissue samples for histological studies.
- Additional Information: Cryostats are commonly used in procedures like immunohistochemistry and intraoperative histology to evaluate tissue sections quickly.
- Rationale: A microtome is an instrument used to cut extremely thin slices of tissue embedded in paraffin wax. The sections are prepared for microscopic examination, typically in pathology labs.
- Additional Information: Microtomes provide high precision in cutting uniform sections, which is crucial for detailed cellular and structural analysis.
- Rationale: A water bath is used in histology labs to float paraffin ribbons (thin sections of tissue embedded in paraffin) for easier transfer onto slides. This ensures smooth and intact placement of tissue sections.
- Additional Information: Water baths are temperature-controlled and maintain optimal heat settings to prevent damage to the tissue sections.
- Rationale: A hot air oven is used for sterilization of laboratory equipment and glassware. It uses dry heat to kill microorganisms, ensuring the lab tools are free from contamination.
- Additional Information: The hot air oven operates at temperatures ranging from 160°C to 180°C, and sterilization is achieved by oxidation of microbial cells.
- Incorrect Match: Cryostat is incorrectly matched with sterilization (a). The cryostat is used for freezing sections, not sterilizing equipment.
- Incorrect Match: Microtome is incorrectly matched with freezing sections (d). Microtomes are designed for cutting paraffin sections, not frozen sections.
- Incorrect Match: Water bath is incorrectly matched with cutting paraffin sections (b). Water baths are used for floating ribbons of paraffin sections, not cutting them.
- Incorrect Match: Hot air oven is incorrectly matched with floating ribbons (c). Hot air ovens sterilize equipment, not assist in handling tissue sections.
- Incorrect Match: Cryostat is incorrectly matched with floating ribbons (c). Cryostats are used for freezing sections, not floating paraffin ribbons.
- Incorrect Match: Microtome is incorrectly matched with sterilization (a). Microtomes are used for cutting paraffin sections, not sterilizing tools.
- Incorrect Match: Water bath is incorrectly matched with freezing sections (d). Water baths are used for floating ribbons, not freezing tissue samples.
- Incorrect Match: Hot air oven is incorrectly matched with cutting paraffin sections (b). Hot air ovens sterilize equipment, not cut tissue sections.
- Incorrect Match: Cryostat is incorrectly matched with cutting paraffin sections (b). Cryostats are used for freezing tissue sections, not cutting paraffin sections.
- Incorrect Match: Microtome is incorrectly matched with floating ribbons (c). Microtomes cut paraffin sections, not float ribbons.
- Incorrect Match: Water bath is incorrectly matched with sterilization (a). Water baths are used for floating ribbons, not sterilizing equipment.
- Incorrect Match: Hot air oven is incorrectly matched with freezing sections (d). Hot air ovens sterilize equipment, not freeze tissue samples.
- Matching the correct equipment with their primary use is crucial for laboratory operations. Option 1 correctly associates Cryostat with freezing sections, Microtome with cutting paraffin sections, Water bath with floating ribbons, and Hot air oven with sterilization, ensuring accurate utilization of these tools in histological and sterilization processes.
Pathology and Genetics Question 4:
Match the stains with their applications:
Column A | Column B |
---|---|
1. H&E | a. Carbohydrates |
2. PAS | b. Lipids |
3. Sudan III | c. Acid-fast bacilli |
4. Ziehl-Neelsen | d. Routine tissue morphology |
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 4 Detailed Solution
- The question asks to match specific stains with their respective applications in histology and pathology. Each stain has a unique function based on its chemical properties and the cellular components it targets.
- Hematoxylin and Eosin is the most commonly used stain for routine tissue morphology.
- Hematoxylin stains the nuclei of cells blue or purple, while eosin stains the cytoplasm and extracellular matrix pink.
- It is widely used in histopathology to examine the general structure of tissues and detect abnormalities such as tumors, inflammation, or necrosis.
- PAS stain is specifically used to detect carbohydrates, including glycogen, mucopolysaccharides, and glycoproteins.
- It reacts with the aldehyde groups formed by the oxidation of carbohydrates, resulting in a magenta color.
- This stain is particularly useful in identifying basement membranes, fungal organisms, and glycogen storage diseases.
- Sudan III is a lipid-soluble dye used to stain lipids in tissues.
- It selectively stains fat droplets red or orange, making it useful in the study of fat metabolism and lipid storage diseases.
- It is often employed in frozen tissue sections since processing with alcohol can remove lipids from tissues in paraffin-embedded sections.
- The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is a special staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacilli, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- It involves the use of carbol fuchsin (a red dye) that penetrates the waxy cell walls of acid-fast organisms, which retain the dye even after treatment with acid-alcohol.
- This method is critical in diagnosing tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections.
- Incorrect because H&E does not detect carbohydrates (1-a is wrong). PAS detects carbohydrates, not lipids (2-b is wrong). Sudan III detects lipids, not acid-fast bacilli (3-c is wrong). Ziehl-Neelsen does not analyze routine tissue morphology (4-d is wrong).
- Incorrect because H&E does not detect lipids (1-b is wrong). PAS does not detect acid-fast bacilli (2-c is wrong). Sudan III does not target carbohydrates (3-a is wrong). Ziehl-Neelsen does not analyze routine tissue morphology (4-d is wrong).
- Incorrect because H&E does not detect acid-fast bacilli (1-c is wrong). PAS does not analyze routine tissue morphology (2-d is wrong). Sudan III does detect lipids, but Ziehl-Neelsen does not detect carbohydrates (4-a is wrong).
- Matching stains with their correct applications is critical for understanding their diagnostic uses. H&E is for routine tissue morphology, PAS for carbohydrates, Sudan III for lipids, and Ziehl-Neelsen for acid-fast bacilli. These stains are indispensable tools in histology and pathology.
Pathology and Genetics Question 5:
Match the fixatives with their compositions:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 5 Detailed Solution
- Fixatives are chemical solutions used to preserve biological tissues or specimens for microscopic examination by preventing decay and maintaining structural integrity.
- Each fixative has a specific composition that determines its application and effectiveness in preserving cellular and tissue structures.
- The correct match between fixatives (Column A) and their compositions (Column B) is as follows:
- Formalin: Composed of formaldehyde (40%). Formalin is widely used as a tissue fixative due to its ability to crosslink proteins and stabilize tissue structures.
- Bouin's Fluid: Contains picric acid, formaldehyde, and acetic acid. This fixative is preferred for preserving delicate structures like nuclei and is often used in histology.
- Carnoy's Fluid: Composed of alcohol, chloroform, and acetic acid. It is ideal for rapid fixation and is commonly used for preserving nucleic acids and chromosomes.
- Zenker's Fluid: Contains mercuric chloride and potassium dichromate. It is used for preserving cytoplasmic structures and is considered excellent for staining purposes.
- Incorrect because it mismatches the compositions of fixatives. For example, Formalin does not consist of Bouin's composition (picric acid, formaldehyde, acetic acid), and Zenker's Fluid does not include alcohol or chloroform.
- Incorrect because the compositions are entirely mismatched. Formalin is not composed of alcohol, and Bouin's Fluid does not contain mercuric chloride and potassium dichromate. Additionally, Carnoy's Fluid does not contain formaldehyde.
- Incorrect because it swaps the compositions among the fixatives. For example, Formalin does not contain mercuric chloride, and Zenker's Fluid does not consist of formaldehyde.
- The correct matches between fixatives and their compositions are critical for understanding their applications in tissue preservation and histological studies. Option 1 provides the accurate correspondence, ensuring proper identification and usage of these fixatives in laboratory settings.
Top Pathology and Genetics MCQ Objective Questions
Pathology and Genetics Question 6:
What could cause urine specimens to appear cloudy?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 6 Detailed Solution
- Cloudy urine can be caused by the presence of various substances, including bacteria, red blood cells (RBCs), and pus cells. These substances can indicate different underlying conditions or infections.
- Bacteria in the urine can cause it to appear cloudy. This is often a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI), where the presence of bacteria leads to an inflammatory response in the urinary tract.
- Red blood cells (RBCs) can also cause urine to appear cloudy. Hematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can result from various conditions, including kidney stones, infections, or trauma to the urinary system.
- Pus cells, or white blood cells (WBCs), in the urine are another potential cause of cloudiness. This is often associated with infections or inflammations of the urinary tract, where the body's immune response leads to an increased presence of WBCs in the urine.
- Rationale: While bacteria can indeed cause cloudy urine, it is not the sole cause. Bacterial presence typically indicates a urinary tract infection (UTI), but other substances can also contribute to urine cloudiness.
- Rationale: RBCs can make urine appear cloudy, often due to conditions like hematuria. However, the presence of RBCs alone is not the only reason for cloudy urine, as other cells and substances can also contribute to this appearance.
- Rationale: Pus cells can cause urine cloudiness, indicating an infection or inflammation. However, similar to bacteria and RBCs, pus cells are not the sole cause of cloudy urine.
- All of the above options (bacteria, red blood cells, and pus cells) can individually or collectively cause urine to appear cloudy. Therefore, the most comprehensive answer is "All of the above," recognizing that multiple factors can contribute to the cloudiness of urine.
Pathology and Genetics Question 7:
What is the principle behind the reagent strip test for detecting blood?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 7 Detailed Solution
- The principle behind the reagent strip test for detecting blood is based on the peroxidase activity of heme, which is a component of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
- Heme acts as a pseudo-peroxidase. In the presence of hydrogen peroxide, heme catalyzes the oxidation of a chromogen on the reagent strip, causing a color change.
- The appearance of a color on the strip indicates the presence of blood, as the heme in red blood cells or myoglobin in muscle cells is responsible for this reaction.
- Rationale: This option is incorrect because the test does not rely on the binding of heme to a chromogenic dye. Instead, the test is based on the catalytic activity of heme in the presence of hydrogen peroxide and a chromogen.
- Rationale: Although this option is somewhat related, it is not entirely correct. The test specifically relies on the peroxidase activity of heme, not just any peroxidase. The reaction involves heme acting as a pseudo-peroxidase.
- Rationale: This option is incorrect because the reagent strip test for detecting blood does not involve diazo activity. Diazo reactions are typically used for detecting other substances, such as bilirubin, not blood.
- The principle behind the reagent strip test for detecting blood is the peroxidase activity of heme. This activity causes a color change on the test strip in the presence of hydrogen peroxide and a chromogen, indicating the presence of blood. Other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the mechanism of the test.
Pathology and Genetics Question 8:
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) containing predominantly lymphocytes is indicative of meningitis caused by:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 8 Detailed Solution
- Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is a crucial diagnostic tool in evaluating infections of the central nervous system, such as meningitis.
- When CSF contains predominantly lymphocytes, it often indicates a viral infection. Viral meningitis is more common and generally less severe than bacterial meningitis.
- Viruses such as enteroviruses, herpes simplex virus, and varicella-zoster virus are common causes of viral meningitis, leading to an increased lymphocyte count in the CSF.
- Rationale: Parasitic infections of the central nervous system are relatively rare and typically present with a mixed cell count in the CSF, including eosinophils, rather than predominantly lymphocytes.
- Rationale: Bacterial meningitis typically results in a CSF profile with a high number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) rather than lymphocytes. This type of meningitis is more severe and requires immediate medical attention.
- Rationale: Fungal meningitis, such as that caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, often presents with a mixed or lymphocytic predominance in the CSF. However, it is less common than viral or bacterial meningitis and occurs more frequently in immunocompromised individuals.
- Among the given options, the presence of predominantly lymphocytes in the CSF is most indicative of viral meningitis. Prompt and accurate differentiation of the type of meningitis is essential for appropriate treatment and management.
Pathology and Genetics Question 9:
Gmelin's test is specifically used to detect which compound in urine?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 9 Detailed Solution
- Gmelin's test is a chemical test specifically used to detect the presence of bile pigments in urine. Bile pigments, such as bilirubin and biliverdin, are breakdown products of hemoglobin from red blood cells and are normally processed by the liver and excreted in bile.
- The test involves adding nitric acid to the urine sample. If bile pigments are present, a series of color changes—typically green, blue, violet, and red—will be observed, indicating a positive result.
- This test is important for diagnosing liver diseases, such as hepatitis and cirrhosis, where the processing of bile pigments is impaired.
- Rationale: The presence of sugar (glucose) in urine is typically detected using Benedict's test or a urine dipstick test. These tests involve chemical reactions that result in a color change if glucose is present, indicating conditions such as diabetes mellitus.
- Rationale: Ketone bodies in urine are usually detected using Rothera's test or a urine dipstick test. These tests can indicate ketosis, which occurs in conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes, prolonged fasting, or a ketogenic diet.
- Rationale: The presence of bile salts in urine is typically detected using Hay's sulphur test. This test relies on the ability of bile salts to lower the surface tension of urine, causing sulfur to sink, indicating liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction.
- Gmelin's test is specifically used to detect bile pigments in urine, which can help diagnose liver-related conditions. The other options, such as sugar, ketone bodies, and bile salts, are detected using different specific tests that are tailored to identify these particular compounds in urine.
Pathology and Genetics Question 10:
Melituria refers to the presence of which substance in urine?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 10 Detailed Solution
- Melituria refers to the presence of sugar, specifically glucose, in the urine. This condition is often associated with diabetes mellitus, where elevated blood glucose levels lead to the excretion of glucose in the urine due to the kidneys' inability to reabsorb it completely.
- The presence of sugar in urine indicates that the renal threshold for glucose has been exceeded, which is typically around 180 mg/dL of blood glucose. This condition can be detected using urine dipsticks that change color in the presence of glucose.
- Rationale: The presence of protein in the urine is known as proteinuria or albuminuria. This condition can be a sign of kidney disease, as the kidneys normally prevent significant amounts of protein from passing into the urine.
- Rationale: Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine. It can be caused by various conditions, including urinary tract infections, kidney stones, trauma, or tumors in the urinary tract.
- Rationale: The presence of ketones in the urine is known as ketonuria. It occurs when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of glucose, which can happen in conditions like uncontrolled diabetes, fasting, or a low-carbohydrate diet.
- Among the given options, melituria specifically refers to the presence of sugar in the urine. This condition is most commonly associated with diabetes and can be an important indicator in the diagnosis and monitoring of this disease.
Pathology and Genetics Question 11:
What is the medical term for the absence of sperm in semen?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 11 Detailed Solution
- Azoospermia is the medical term for the complete absence of sperm in the semen. This condition is a significant cause of male infertility and can be due to various factors such as genetic conditions, hormonal imbalances, or blockages in the male reproductive tract.
- There are two main types of azoospermia: obstructive azoospermia, where there is a physical blockage preventing sperm from being present in the semen, and non-obstructive azoospermia, which is due to a problem with sperm production.
- Rationale: Oligospermia refers to a condition where the sperm count in semen is lower than normal. It is not an absence of sperm, but rather a reduced number, which can also affect fertility.
- Rationale: Hypospermia is a condition characterized by a low volume of semen. This is different from the absence of sperm, as the semen may still contain sperm, but in a reduced volume of ejaculate.
- Rationale: Hyperspermia is the condition where there is an abnormally high volume of semen. This is the opposite of hypospermia and does not indicate the absence of sperm.
- Among the given options, azoospermia is the correct term for the complete absence of sperm in the semen. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is essential for diagnosing and treating male fertility issues effectively.
Pathology and Genetics Question 12:
Which type of meningitis primarily affects infants and children below 5 years of age, with a high incidence in those under 2 years?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 12 Detailed Solution
- Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is a bacterial pathogen that was a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in infants and children under 5 years of age, especially those under 2 years, before the introduction of the Hib vaccine.
- Hib meningitis is characterized by symptoms such as fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, and altered mental status. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications, including hearing loss, brain damage, and even death.
- The introduction of the Hib vaccine has significantly reduced the incidence of Hib meningitis, making it less common in countries with high vaccination coverage.
- Rationale: Staphylococcal meningitis is caused by Staphylococcus bacteria, which are not a common cause of meningitis in infants and young children. This type of meningitis is more often seen in individuals with head trauma, neurosurgical procedures, or compromised immune systems.
- Rationale: Candida meningitis is a rare form of fungal meningitis caused by Candida species. It is more likely to occur in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS or those undergoing chemotherapy, rather than in otherwise healthy infants and young children.
- Rationale: Leprae meningitis is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, the bacterium responsible for leprosy (Hansen's disease). Leprosy primarily affects the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucous membranes, and meningitis is not a common manifestation of this infection.
- Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) was historically the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in infants and young children before the widespread use of the Hib vaccine. The introduction of the vaccine has significantly decreased its incidence, making it a less frequent cause of meningitis in vaccinated populations.
Pathology and Genetics Question 13:
Specimens obtained from patients with urinary tract infections (UTI) often appear:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 13 Detailed Solution
- Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are infections that affect any part of the urinary system, including the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. The presence of bacteria and white blood cells in the urine typically causes the urine to become cloudy and sometimes red if there is bleeding in the urinary tract.
- The cloudiness is primarily due to the presence of pus (pyuria), which indicates an infection. The red color can be due to the presence of blood (hematuria), which may occur in more severe infections or inflammation.
- Rationale: Clear urine that is red indicates the presence of blood without any significant cloudiness. This might suggest other conditions such as kidney stones, trauma, or glomerulonephritis rather than a typical urinary tract infection.
- Rationale: Viscous and orange urine is uncommon in UTIs. Orange urine may be due to certain medications, dehydration, or liver dysfunction. Increased viscosity could be due to the presence of mucus or other substances, but it is not a typical presentation of a UTI.
- Rationale: Pale yellow urine generally indicates normal, healthy hydration status and is not typically associated with an active urinary tract infection, which would more likely present with abnormalities such as cloudiness or discoloration.
- Urinary tract infections typically cause urine to appear cloudy due to the presence of white blood cells and bacteria, and red if there is bleeding in the urinary tract. Therefore, the most accurate description of urine from a patient with a UTI is "cloudy and red". Other options do not accurately describe the typical appearance of urine in UTI cases.
Pathology and Genetics Question 14:
Normal saline (0.85%) is typically used for the routine examination of:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 14 Detailed Solution
Normal Saline (0.85%) is commonly used for the routine examination of stool specimens for several reasons:
Reasons for using Normal Saline (0.85%) in Stool Specimen Examination:
-
Isotonic Solution:
- Normal saline (0.85%) is isotonic, which means it has the same osmotic pressure as human cells. This helps prevent the distortion or rupture of cells that may occur if a hypotonic or hypertonic solution were used. When examining stool samples for parasites, maintaining the integrity of the cells is essential for accurate identification.
-
Parasite Detection:
- The saline solution is used to examine the stool for the presence of:
- Worms (e.g., roundworms, hookworms)
- Eggs (e.g., of parasites like pinworms)
- Larvae (e.g., hookworm larvae)
- Protozoan trophozoites (e.g., Giardia, Entamoeba histolytica)
- Cysts (e.g., of amoeba and other protozoa)
- These are all key indicators of parasitic infections, and saline helps to identify them under a microscope.
- The saline solution is used to examine the stool for the presence of:
-
Presence of RBCs and WBCs:
- The solution helps in revealing the presence of red blood cells (RBCs) and white blood cells (WBCs) in the stool. The presence of blood cells in the stool could indicate inflammation or infection in the gastrointestinal tract, such as in conditions like dysentery or colitis.
-
Easy Preparation and Use:
- Normal saline is easy to prepare, and since it mimics the body's natural fluid, it doesn’t cause any chemical changes in the stool sample. This ensures that the stool components (such as cysts or larvae) remain intact, allowing for better analysis.
-
Common Practice in Parasitology:
- For stool specimen examination, especially in the diagnosis of parasitic infections, saline is one of the most commonly used solutions. It is preferred because it doesn't affect the structure of the parasites and provides a clear view under the microscope.
Why Not Other Specimens?
- Eye specimens: Saline is sometimes used for irrigation, but it's not typically used for detailed examination or microbiological studies of the eye specimen.
- Urine specimens: Saline is not usually used to examine urine. Urine is typically analyzed with reagents that detect substances like protein, glucose, or bacteria, rather than saline.
- Fluid specimens: While saline might be used in some tests to dilute or flush fluids, it’s not commonly used as a routine examination medium for general fluid specimens.
Pathology and Genetics Question 15:
Bile pigments are breakdown products of ______ and are excreted in bile:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Pathology and Genetics Question 15 Detailed Solution
- Bile pigments are the breakdown products of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. When red blood cells are aged or damaged, they are broken down in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow. Hemoglobin is then released and further broken down into heme and globin.
- The heme portion of hemoglobin is converted into biliverdin, which is subsequently reduced to bilirubin. Bilirubin is the primary bile pigment and is transported to the liver, where it is conjugated and eventually excreted in bile.
- Rationale: Diabetes is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period. It is not directly related to the formation of bile pigments or the breakdown of hemoglobin.
- Rationale: Uric acid is a waste product formed from the breakdown of purines, which are found in certain foods and are also part of the body's cells. Excess uric acid can lead to gout but has no direct role in the formation of bile pigments.
- Rationale: Ketones are produced during the metabolism of fatty acids in the liver, especially during periods of low carbohydrate intake, fasting, or prolonged exercise. They are not related to the breakdown of hemoglobin or the formation of bile pigments.
- Bile pigments are specifically the breakdown products of hemoglobin, making hemoglobin the correct answer. Other options like diabetes, uric acid, and ketones are unrelated to the formation of bile pigments and their excretion in bile.