Medical Dresser MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Medical Dresser - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Apr 23, 2025
Latest Medical Dresser MCQ Objective Questions
Medical Dresser Question 1:
The Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) is used to:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Recover the patient from anesthesia
Medical Dresser Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Recover the patient from anesthesia
Rationale:
- The Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) is a specialized area in hospitals where patients are taken after undergoing anesthesia during surgery. The primary role of the PACU is to monitor and manage patients as they recover from the effects of anesthesia.
- In the PACU, healthcare professionals carefully observe patients for any immediate postoperative complications, ensuring that they regain consciousness safely and their vital signs return to normal.
- The PACU staff is trained to handle a variety of postoperative issues, such as managing pain, nausea, and ensuring the patient's airway remains clear.
Explanation of Other Options:
Perform diagnostic tests
- Rationale: Diagnostic tests are usually performed before or after the surgery but not in the PACU. The PACU is focused on monitoring recovery from anesthesia rather than conducting tests.
Continue the surgical procedure
- Rationale: The surgical procedure is completed in the operating room (OR). The PACU is designed for postoperative care, not for continuing surgery.
Administer postoperative medication
- Rationale: While postoperative medications may be given in the PACU to manage pain and other symptoms, this is not the primary purpose of the unit. The main focus is on recovering from anesthesia.
Conclusion:
- The primary purpose of the PACU is to ensure that patients safely recover from anesthesia, with a focus on monitoring vital signs and addressing any immediate postoperative complications. Other activities such as performing diagnostic tests or continuing the surgical procedure are not conducted in the PACU.
Medical Dresser Question 2:
Which of the following positioning aids might be used to secure a patient in the correct position for surgery?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Padding and supports
Medical Dresser Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Padding and supports
Rationale:
- Padding and supports are essential positioning aids used in surgery to ensure that the patient is maintained in the correct position throughout the procedure. These aids help in distributing pressure evenly and reducing the risk of pressure sores and nerve injuries.
- They provide stability and comfort, ensuring that the patient remains immobile and properly aligned during the surgical process, which is crucial for both the success of the surgery and the safety of the patient.
Explanation of Other Options:
Surgical drapes
- Rationale: Surgical drapes are used to cover the patient and surrounding areas to maintain a sterile environment. They do not function as positioning aids but rather help in preventing contamination during the surgery.
Sterile gloves
- Rationale: Sterile gloves are worn by the surgical team to maintain sterility and prevent the transmission of pathogens. They are essential for infection control but are not used to secure the patient in a specific position.
Surgical team members holding the patient
- Rationale: While surgical team members may assist in initially positioning the patient, they do not hold the patient throughout the surgery. Continuous holding by team members is impractical and would not provide the necessary stability required during a procedure.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, padding and supports are the correct aids used to secure a patient in the correct position for surgery. They ensure the patient remains stable and comfortable, which is critical for both the safety of the patient and the success of the surgical procedure.
Medical Dresser Question 3:
NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines are followed before surgery to:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Prevent aspiration during anesthesia
Medical Dresser Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Prevent aspiration during anesthesia
Rationale:
- NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines are critical protocols followed before surgery to ensure patient safety and optimal surgical outcomes.
- Aspiration during anesthesia is a serious risk where stomach contents can enter the lungs, leading to pneumonia or other respiratory complications. By following NPO guidelines, the stomach is kept empty, significantly reducing this risk.
- The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) typically recommends fasting from solid foods for at least 6-8 hours and clear liquids for 2 hours before anesthesia to minimize the risk of aspiration.
Explanation of Other Options:
Minimize fluid intake
- Rationale: While minimizing fluid intake is a part of NPO guidelines, the primary reason is to prevent aspiration, not just to minimize fluids. Patients are often allowed to have clear liquids up to 2 hours before surgery.
Reduce patient anxiety
- Rationale: Reducing patient anxiety is important for surgery preparation, but it is not the primary reason for NPO guidelines. Other measures, such as preoperative counseling and sedatives, are used to address anxiety.
Allow more time for preoperative tests
- Rationale: Preoperative tests are scheduled well in advance and do not typically conflict with NPO guidelines. The timing of tests is not related to the requirement of fasting before surgery.
Conclusion:
- The primary goal of NPO guidelines before surgery is to prevent aspiration during anesthesia. This is crucial for patient safety and to avoid serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Other reasons, while relevant to the overall surgical process, do not address the critical risk that NPO guidelines aim to mitigate.
Medical Dresser Question 4:
What is the goal of patient education before surgery?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : All of the above
Medical Dresser Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: All of the above
Rationale:
- The goal of patient education before surgery is multifaceted. It aims to relieve preoperative anxiety, improve patient cooperation, explain the types of anesthesia used, and inform the patient about surgical risks.
- Effective patient education can significantly enhance the surgical experience, leading to better outcomes and improved patient satisfaction.
- It helps patients understand what to expect before, during, and after surgery, thereby reducing fear and anxiety.
- Educating patients about anesthesia options and surgical risks ensures they are well-informed, which is crucial for obtaining informed consent.
Explanation of Other Options:
To relieve preoperative anxiety and improve cooperation
- Rationale: While this is an important aspect of patient education, it is not the sole goal. Reducing anxiety and improving cooperation are crucial for ensuring that the patient is mentally prepared for surgery, but patient education encompasses more than just these elements.
To explain the types of anesthesia used
- Rationale: Explaining the types of anesthesia is a key component of preoperative education, but it is only one part of the comprehensive information that patients need. Understanding anesthesia options helps patients make informed decisions but does not cover all educational needs.
To inform the patient about surgical risks
- Rationale: Informing patients about surgical risks is essential for obtaining informed consent and ensuring that patients are aware of potential complications. However, it is not the only objective of patient education before surgery.
Conclusion:
- The comprehensive goal of patient education before surgery is to address all the aspects mentioned: relieving anxiety, improving cooperation, explaining anesthesia types, and informing about surgical risks. This holistic approach ensures that patients are thoroughly prepared for the surgical experience, both mentally and physically.
Medical Dresser Question 5:
A preoperative checklist includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Ensuring the patient's comfort during the procedure
Medical Dresser Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Ensuring the patient's comfort during the procedure
Rationale:
- A preoperative checklist is a systematic and standardized process used to ensure that all necessary preparations are made before a surgical procedure. It is designed to enhance patient safety and improve surgical outcomes by confirming critical elements and preparations.
- Ensuring the patient's comfort during the procedure is not typically included in the preoperative checklist. This aspect is usually addressed during the intraoperative phase by the anesthesia and surgical teams who monitor and manage the patient’s comfort and pain levels during surgery.
Explanation of Other Options:
Confirming the patient’s identity
- Rationale: Confirming the patient’s identity is a crucial step in the preoperative checklist to prevent any mix-up of patients. It ensures that the correct patient is undergoing the correct procedure, which is essential for patient safety.
Checking for allergies
- Rationale: Checking for allergies is included in the preoperative checklist to identify any known allergies that the patient may have. This information is vital to avoid administering medications or using materials that could cause an allergic reaction during surgery.
Documenting surgical team attire
- Rationale: Documenting the surgical team attire ensures that all team members are adhering to the sterile dress code required in the operating room. This helps in maintaining a sterile environment and preventing surgical site infections.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, ensuring the patient's comfort during the procedure is not a part of the preoperative checklist. The checklist focuses on crucial preparations such as confirming patient identity, checking for allergies, and documenting the surgical team's adherence to sterile protocols to ensure patient safety and successful surgical outcomes.
Top Medical Dresser MCQ Objective Questions
Medical Dresser Question 6:
Which of the following is the ideal time to remove scalp sutures:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 7 days
Medical Dresser Question 6 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 7 days
Rationale:
- Scalp sutures are typically removed after 7 days to allow for adequate healing of the wound while minimizing the risk of infection or dehiscence (reopening of the wound).
- The scalp is a highly vascular area, which promotes faster healing, but removing sutures too early can compromise wound strength.
Explanation of Other Options:
3 days
- Rationale: Removing scalp sutures after just 3 days is generally too soon. The wound may not have sufficient tensile strength, increasing the risk of wound dehiscence.
5 days
- Rationale: Although 5 days might be appropriate for some areas of the body, it is usually still too early for the scalp. The wound might not be fully healed, and premature removal can increase infection risk.
10 days
- Rationale: While waiting 10 days can be safe, it is generally longer than necessary for scalp wounds due to the area’s rich blood supply, which helps in faster healing. Delayed removal can also increase the risk of suture marks and scarring.
Conclusion:
- The ideal time for removing scalp sutures is 7 days. This duration balances the need for adequate wound healing with the goal of minimizing the risk of complications such as infection or scarring. While individual cases may vary, 7 days is generally optimal for most patients.
Medical Dresser Question 7:
Ampicillin prophylaxis is given in:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Biliary surgery
Medical Dresser Question 7 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Biliary surgery
Rationale:
- Ampicillin is a type of antibiotic that is often used for prophylaxis in surgeries to prevent postoperative infections. Prophylactic antibiotics are given to decrease the risk of surgical site infections which can lead to severe complications.
- In biliary surgery, ampicillin prophylaxis is typically administered due to the high risk of infection from bacteria entering the biliary tract. The biliary system is a common site for bacterial colonization, and surgical intervention can increase the risk of infection.
- Administering ampicillin before and sometimes after biliary surgery helps to reduce the incidence of postoperative infections, leading to better surgical outcomes and shorter hospital stays.
Explanation of Other Options:
Rectal surgery
- Rationale: While prophylactic antibiotics are used in rectal surgeries due to the high bacterial load in the colon and rectum, ampicillin alone is not the first-line choice. A combination of antibiotics that covers both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria is preferred.
Splenectomy
- Rationale: Splenectomy patients are at increased risk of infections, particularly from encapsulated organisms. Prophylactic antibiotics post-splenectomy often include penicillin or amoxicillin, but not specifically ampicillin for surgical prophylaxis.
Head & Neck surgery
- Rationale: Antibiotic prophylaxis in head and neck surgeries is common, especially in clean-contaminated cases. However, the choice of antibiotic often depends on the type of surgery and the bacteria commonly found in the head and neck region, with clindamycin or cefazolin being more commonly used.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, biliary surgery is the correct answer for the use of ampicillin prophylaxis due to the high risk of infection from bacteria in the biliary tract. Proper antibiotic prophylaxis is critical in preventing postoperative infections and ensuring successful surgical outcomes.
Medical Dresser Question 8:
Airborne infections in the operating room are decreased by all except:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Air conditioning
Medical Dresser Question 8 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Air conditioning
Rationale:
- Air conditioning primarily focuses on maintaining a comfortable temperature and humidity level within the operating room. While it may contribute to an overall cleaner environment, it does not specifically target airborne pathogens that can cause infections.
- Air conditioning systems do not typically include specialized filtration or sterilization mechanisms aimed at reducing airborne microbial contamination.
Explanation of Other Options:
Laminar air flow
- Rationale: Laminar air flow systems are designed to provide a continuous, unidirectional air flow that minimizes turbulence and the spread of airborne contaminants. This is particularly effective in reducing the risk of airborne infections in the operating room.
Ultraviolet light
- Rationale: Ultraviolet (UV) light is used to sterilize air and surfaces by destroying the DNA of microorganisms, making it an effective method for reducing airborne infections in the operating room.
Microfilters
- Rationale: Microfilters are designed to remove small particles, including bacteria and viruses, from the air. These filters are an essential component in maintaining clean air within the operating room, thereby reducing the risk of airborne infections.
Conclusion:
- While air conditioning is important for maintaining a comfortable and controlled environment, it does not specifically target airborne pathogens. In contrast, laminar air flow, ultraviolet light, and microfilters are all specifically designed to reduce airborne infections in the operating room.
Medical Dresser Question 9:
Which gas is used in laparoscopy:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : CO2
Medical Dresser Question 9 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: CO2
Rationale:
- Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that allows a surgeon to access the inside of the abdomen and pelvis without having to make large incisions in the skin.
- Carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to inflate the abdomen during laparoscopy. This creates a working space for the surgeon to operate. CO2 is preferred because it is non-flammable, easily absorbed by the body, and can be exhaled through the lungs.
Explanation of Other Options:
N2O
- Rationale: Nitrous oxide (N2O) is commonly known as laughing gas and is used primarily as an anesthetic and analgesic. It is not typically used for inflating the abdomen in laparoscopic procedures because it is not as easily absorbed by the body and poses a higher risk of gas embolism.
Oxygen
- Rationale: Oxygen is essential for cellular respiration and is used in various medical treatments. However, it is not used for abdominal insufflation during laparoscopy due to the risk of supporting combustion, which is dangerous in the presence of electrical surgical instruments.
N2
- Rationale: Nitrogen (N2) is an inert gas and can theoretically be used for insufflation. However, it is not commonly used because it is not as easily absorbed by the body as CO2, potentially leading to complications such as gas embolism.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, CO2 is the preferred gas for insufflation in laparoscopic procedures due to its safety profile, ease of absorption, and minimal physiological impact. This makes it the optimal choice for creating the necessary working space within the abdominal cavity.
Medical Dresser Question 10:
PDS is absorbed within:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 225 days
Medical Dresser Question 10 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 225 days
Rationale:
- Polydioxanone (PDS) is a synthetic absorbable suture material commonly used in surgery. It is known for its strength and extended absorption time, making it suitable for tissues that require long-term support during healing.
- PDS is absorbed by hydrolysis, a chemical process in which the polymer degrades into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. This slow process ensures that the suture material maintains its tensile strength for a prolonged period.
- The complete absorption of PDS usually occurs within approximately 225 days. This extended absorption time is beneficial in surgeries where long-term tissue support is necessary, such as in orthopedics or cardiovascular surgery.
Explanation of Other Options:
7 days
- Rationale: Absorption within 7 days is typical for fast-absorbing suture materials, such as chromic gut or some synthetic absorbable sutures designed for rapid healing tissues. These sutures lose their tensile strength quickly and are absorbed within a week.
21 days
- Rationale: Sutures that are absorbed within 21 days are generally mid-term absorbable sutures like plain gut or some synthetic options like Vicryl. They provide moderate tensile strength and are suitable for tissues that heal relatively quickly.
100 days
- Rationale: Some synthetic absorbable sutures, such as Monocryl, are absorbed within around 100 days. These sutures offer an intermediate duration of tensile strength, making them suitable for a variety of surgical applications.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, 225 days is the correct absorption time for Polydioxanone (PDS). Its extended absorption period provides long-term support for tissues that require prolonged healing, making it an important suture material in specific surgical scenarios.
Medical Dresser Question 11:
Morbid obesity is BMI greater than:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 40
Medical Dresser Question 11 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 40
Rationale:
- Morbid obesity, also known as class III obesity, is defined as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 40 or higher. This classification is used to identify individuals who are at a significantly higher risk for obesity-related health conditions.
- BMI is a measure calculated using a person's weight and height (BMI = kg/m2). It is a widely used screening tool to categorize weight status and potential health risks.
Explanation of Other Options:
25
- Rationale: A BMI of 25 is categorized as overweight, not morbidly obese. Individuals with a BMI of 25 to 29.9 are considered to be at an increased risk for cardiovascular diseases and other health issues related to excess weight.
30
- Rationale: A BMI of 30 is categorized as obesity class I. This is the lowest category of obesity and indicates an individual at higher risk for various health conditions, but it is not classified as morbid obesity.
45
- Rationale: While a BMI of 45 is indeed higher than 40, and also falls into the category of morbid obesity, the threshold for defining morbid obesity starts at a BMI of 40. Therefore, 45 is not the standard threshold for defining the condition.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, a BMI greater than 40 is classified as morbid obesity. This categorization is important for identifying individuals who are at significant health risks due to their weight, allowing for targeted interventions and treatments to manage and reduce these risks.
Medical Dresser Question 12:
Instrument used to create pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Veress needle
Medical Dresser Question 12 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Veress needle
Rationale:
- A Veress needle is specifically designed for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic surgery. Pneumoperitoneum refers to the insufflation of the abdominal cavity with gas (usually carbon dioxide) to create a working space for the surgeon.
- The Veress needle is a spring-loaded needle that helps safely introduce gas into the peritoneal cavity. It has a blunt inner stylet that retracts upon insertion, minimizing the risk of injury to internal organs.
- After the needle is correctly positioned in the peritoneal cavity, gas is introduced to inflate the abdomen, creating a space for the laparoscopic instruments to operate.
Explanation of Other Options:
Maryland forceps
- Rationale: Maryland forceps are used in laparoscopic surgery but are not involved in creating pneumoperitoneum. They are typically used for grasping, dissecting, and manipulating tissues.
Trocar
- Rationale: A trocar is a sharp-pointed instrument that is used to introduce ports through which laparoscopic instruments can be inserted. However, it is not used for the initial creation of pneumoperitoneum. The Veress needle is used first to insufflate the abdomen, and then trocars are introduced.
All of the above
- Rationale: This option is incorrect because not all the instruments listed are used to create pneumoperitoneum. Only the Veress needle is specifically designed for this purpose.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the Veress needle is the correct instrument used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery. It is specially designed to safely introduce gas into the peritoneal cavity, which is essential for creating a working space for the surgeon.
Medical Dresser Question 13:
During laparoscopy, the intra-abdominal pressure is:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : 12-15 mmHg
Medical Dresser Question 13 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 12-15 mmHg
Rationale:
- During laparoscopy, a minimally invasive surgical procedure, it is crucial to maintain the intra-abdominal pressure within a specific range to ensure safety and optimal working conditions for the surgeon.
- The recommended intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy is 12-15 mmHg. This pressure range provides sufficient space for the surgeon to visualize and manipulate the organs while minimizing the risk of complications such as compromised blood flow or damage to the organs.
Explanation of Other Options:
5-10 mmHg
- Rationale: This pressure range is generally considered too low for effective laparoscopic surgery. It may not provide adequate space for the surgeon to operate, leading to poor visualization and increased risk of accidental injury to internal organs.
15-20 mmHg
- Rationale: Pressures in this range can be higher than necessary and may increase the risk of complications such as reduced blood flow to the abdominal organs, decreased venous return, and potential cardiovascular strain. It is generally recommended to keep the pressure at the lower end of this range.
20-25 mmHg
- Rationale: This pressure range is considered excessively high for laparoscopy and can lead to significant complications, including impaired blood circulation, increased risk of gas embolism, and potential damage to the diaphragm and other organs.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, 12-15 mmHg is the recommended intra-abdominal pressure range for laparoscopy. This range ensures a balance between providing adequate space for surgical manipulation and minimizing the risk of complications.
Medical Dresser Question 14:
True about secondary hemorrhage is:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Occurs 7-16 days after surgery
Medical Dresser Question 14 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Occurs 7-16 days after surgery
Rationale:
- Secondary hemorrhage refers to bleeding that occurs after the initial hemostasis has been achieved following surgery. This type of hemorrhage typically happens in the postoperative period.
- The most common timeframe for secondary hemorrhage is between 7 to 16 days after surgery. This period coincides with the time when the wound is undergoing healing and the initial clot may be dislodged or a small vessel may reopen.
Explanation of Other Options:
Occurs due to slipped ligature
- Rationale: While a slipped ligature can cause bleeding, it is more commonly associated with primary hemorrhage, which occurs immediately or within the first 24 hours after surgery. Secondary hemorrhage is usually due to other factors such as infection or the reopening of small vessels during the healing process.
Occurs one month after surgery
- Rationale: Hemorrhage occurring one month after surgery is not typically classified as secondary hemorrhage. Bleeding at this late stage is unusual and may be due to other complications or conditions unrelated to the initial surgery, such as a new injury or underlying pathology.
None of the above
- Rationale: This option is incorrect because secondary hemorrhage most commonly occurs 7-16 days post-surgery, which is covered in the correct answer.
Conclusion:
- Secondary hemorrhage is most accurately defined as occurring 7-16 days after surgery. This period is critical as the initial healing processes may dislodge clots or reopen small vessels, leading to bleeding.
Medical Dresser Question 15:
Chlorhexidine is used as a surgical antiseptic because it:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Kills bacteria and viruses
Medical Dresser Question 15 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Kills bacteria and viruses
Rationale:
- Chlorhexidine is a widely used antiseptic that is effective against a broad spectrum of bacteria and viruses. It is commonly used in surgical settings to disinfect the skin and prevent infections.
- It works by disrupting the cell membranes of microorganisms, leading to cell death. This makes it highly effective in reducing the risk of post-surgical infections.
- Chlorhexidine is preferred for its persistent antimicrobial activity, providing prolonged protection even after the initial application.
Explanation of Other Options:
Cleans wounds
- Rationale: While chlorhexidine can aid in cleaning wounds, its primary function as a surgical antiseptic is to kill bacteria and viruses. Other solutions, like saline, are more commonly used specifically for cleaning wounds.
Prevents hemorrhage
- Rationale: Chlorhexidine does not prevent hemorrhage. Hemorrhage control usually involves hemostatic agents or surgical techniques to stop bleeding, not antiseptics.
Numbs the area
- Rationale: Chlorhexidine does not have anesthetic properties and does not numb the area. Local anesthetics like lidocaine are used to numb areas during surgical procedures.
Conclusion:
- Chlorhexidine is primarily used as a surgical antiseptic due to its ability to kill bacteria and viruses effectively. This reduces the risk of infections during and after surgical procedures, ensuring a safer recovery for patients.